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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, the Insurance Authority identifies an authorized insurer engaging in practices that, while not immediately leading to insolvency, pose a significant risk to policyholder interests and market stability. Which of the following actions would represent a statutory power of intervention available to the Insurance Authority in this scenario, short of outright liquidation?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) possesses a range of statutory powers to intervene in the operations of authorized insurers when necessary. These powers are designed to protect policyholders and maintain the stability of the insurance market. The options provided represent different levels of intervention. Liquidation is the most severe action, involving the winding up of the company. Restrictions on business activities, such as limiting the types of policies an insurer can underwrite or prohibiting new business, are less severe but still significant interventions. Appointing a statutory manager is a measure where the IA takes direct control of the insurer’s management to rectify issues. Therefore, the ability to impose restrictions on an insurer’s business activities is a key intervention power granted to the IA under relevant Hong Kong insurance legislation, such as the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41).
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) possesses a range of statutory powers to intervene in the operations of authorized insurers when necessary. These powers are designed to protect policyholders and maintain the stability of the insurance market. The options provided represent different levels of intervention. Liquidation is the most severe action, involving the winding up of the company. Restrictions on business activities, such as limiting the types of policies an insurer can underwrite or prohibiting new business, are less severe but still significant interventions. Appointing a statutory manager is a measure where the IA takes direct control of the insurer’s management to rectify issues. Therefore, the ability to impose restrictions on an insurer’s business activities is a key intervention power granted to the IA under relevant Hong Kong insurance legislation, such as the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41).
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance underwriter is examining a proposal for a single-trip policy. The application form for this specific policy type does not include questions about the applicant’s pre-existing medical conditions. However, the applicant is aware of a minor, non-debilitating condition. According to the underwriting principles for single-trip travel insurance as outlined in the syllabus, what is the most accurate assessment of the applicant’s disclosure obligation regarding their medical condition for this particular policy?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of underwriting practices in travel insurance, specifically concerning single trip policies versus annual policies. The provided text explicitly states that single trip risks are not individually underwritten, meaning the insurer does not typically inquire about the insured’s medical history for these policies. This contrasts with annual policies, where such inquiries are common. Therefore, a proposal for a single trip that omits medical history details, even if not explicitly asked for on the form, is generally acceptable from an underwriting perspective for that specific type of policy, as the insurer has not requested this information for that risk type. The legal duty to disclose material facts still exists, but the underwriting practice for single trips is to not solicit this information, implying a different risk assessment approach compared to annual policies.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of underwriting practices in travel insurance, specifically concerning single trip policies versus annual policies. The provided text explicitly states that single trip risks are not individually underwritten, meaning the insurer does not typically inquire about the insured’s medical history for these policies. This contrasts with annual policies, where such inquiries are common. Therefore, a proposal for a single trip that omits medical history details, even if not explicitly asked for on the form, is generally acceptable from an underwriting perspective for that specific type of policy, as the insurer has not requested this information for that risk type. The legal duty to disclose material facts still exists, but the underwriting practice for single trips is to not solicit this information, implying a different risk assessment approach compared to annual policies.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a licensed travel agent, registered as a travel insurance agent, is approached by a client who is planning an overseas trip. The client wishes to purchase a comprehensive ‘all risks’ policy for a valuable piece of jewellery they will be taking on the trip. The travel agent has arranged the client’s flights and accommodation for this trip. Under the regulations governing travel insurance agents, what is the primary limitation on the agent’s ability to sell this specific jewellery insurance?
Correct
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot offer a policy for a precious watch that is not part of the travel package they arranged, even if the watch is intended for travel, because such a policy would fall outside the defined ‘travel insurance’ and ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’.
Incorrect
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot offer a policy for a precious watch that is not part of the travel package they arranged, even if the watch is intended for travel, because such a policy would fall outside the defined ‘travel insurance’ and ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
An insurance company has collected customer personal data solely for the purpose of administering their insurance policies. The company now wishes to use this data to promote a new range of investment products offered by an affiliated company. Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), what is the primary legal consideration before the insurance company can proceed with this marketing initiative?
Correct
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, an insurance company is proposing to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without such consent, using the data for marketing unrelated products would be a breach of Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t permit unauthorized use. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data usage, not the permissible uses themselves. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the purpose limitation of data usage.
Incorrect
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, an insurance company is proposing to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without such consent, using the data for marketing unrelated products would be a breach of Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t permit unauthorized use. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data usage, not the permissible uses themselves. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the purpose limitation of data usage.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, the Insurance Authority (IA) identifies that a particular insurer is experiencing an unusually high rate of new business acquisition. The IA is concerned that this rapid expansion might outpace the insurer’s capacity to effectively manage the resulting policyholder obligations. Under the powers of intervention available to the IA, which specific action would be most directly aimed at addressing this concern regarding rapid growth and potential liability management?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) has the power to intervene in an insurer’s operations to protect policyholders. One such intervention, as outlined in the provided text, is the limitation of premium income. This measure is typically employed when the IA believes an insurer is experiencing excessively rapid growth, which could potentially lead to difficulties in managing the associated liabilities. The other options, while representing potential regulatory actions, are not the specific intervention described as a limitation on premium income.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) has the power to intervene in an insurer’s operations to protect policyholders. One such intervention, as outlined in the provided text, is the limitation of premium income. This measure is typically employed when the IA believes an insurer is experiencing excessively rapid growth, which could potentially lead to difficulties in managing the associated liabilities. The other options, while representing potential regulatory actions, are not the specific intervention described as a limitation on premium income.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company’s underwriting agent, explicitly instructed not to accept cargo risks for West Africa, has repeatedly granted temporary cover for such risks to a client. Crucially, the insurance company has consistently issued policies to this client for these previously accepted risks. If the client, relying on this established pattern of dealings, requests similar temporary cover from the agent for a West African cargo risk, on what legal basis might the insurer be bound by the agent’s acceptance?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of apparent authority, a key concept in agency law relevant to the IIQE syllabus. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if the agent lacks actual authority. In this scenario, the insurer (principal) consistently issued policies for cargo risks to West Africa, despite explicitly forbidding the underwriting agent from accepting such risks. This pattern of conduct, where the principal ratified the agent’s unauthorized actions by issuing policies, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the agent possessed the authority to grant temporary cover for these risks. Therefore, the insurer would be bound by the agent’s future actions in this regard due to apparent authority, as the client’s reliance on the principal’s past conduct is justified. Option B is incorrect because agency by estoppel requires a representation by the principal that the agent has authority, which is not the primary basis here; the insurer’s actions (issuing policies) directly create the appearance of authority. Option C is incorrect as authority of necessity applies in urgent situations where communication is impossible, which is not indicated in the scenario. Option D is incorrect because while an agent owes duties like obedience and loyalty, the question focuses on the principal’s liability to a third party due to the agent’s actions, not the agent’s internal duties.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of apparent authority, a key concept in agency law relevant to the IIQE syllabus. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if the agent lacks actual authority. In this scenario, the insurer (principal) consistently issued policies for cargo risks to West Africa, despite explicitly forbidding the underwriting agent from accepting such risks. This pattern of conduct, where the principal ratified the agent’s unauthorized actions by issuing policies, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the agent possessed the authority to grant temporary cover for these risks. Therefore, the insurer would be bound by the agent’s future actions in this regard due to apparent authority, as the client’s reliance on the principal’s past conduct is justified. Option B is incorrect because agency by estoppel requires a representation by the principal that the agent has authority, which is not the primary basis here; the insurer’s actions (issuing policies) directly create the appearance of authority. Option C is incorrect as authority of necessity applies in urgent situations where communication is impossible, which is not indicated in the scenario. Option D is incorrect because while an agent owes duties like obedience and loyalty, the question focuses on the principal’s liability to a third party due to the agent’s actions, not the agent’s internal duties.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a household insurance policy is examined. The policy states that if a covered item is damaged beyond repair, the insurer will provide a replacement item of the same type and quality, but brand new, without any reduction for the age or previous condition of the original item. This provision is most accurately described as:
Correct
This question tests the understanding of ‘New for Old’ cover, a policy provision that deviates from strict indemnity. In a ‘New for Old’ scenario, the insurer agrees to replace damaged items with new ones, without deducting for wear and tear or depreciation. This is a common feature in household and marine hull policies, designed to enhance customer satisfaction by providing a more generous payout than strict indemnity would allow. The other options represent different concepts: reinstatement insurance is similar but typically applies to property and is often found in commercial policies; agreed value policies fix the sum insured based on an expert valuation, usually for high-value items where depreciation is minimal or subjective; and the doctrine of contribution applies when there is double insurance, allowing insurers to share the loss.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of ‘New for Old’ cover, a policy provision that deviates from strict indemnity. In a ‘New for Old’ scenario, the insurer agrees to replace damaged items with new ones, without deducting for wear and tear or depreciation. This is a common feature in household and marine hull policies, designed to enhance customer satisfaction by providing a more generous payout than strict indemnity would allow. The other options represent different concepts: reinstatement insurance is similar but typically applies to property and is often found in commercial policies; agreed value policies fix the sum insured based on an expert valuation, usually for high-value items where depreciation is minimal or subjective; and the doctrine of contribution applies when there is double insurance, allowing insurers to share the loss.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a team is examining various types of agreements. They encounter a scenario where two individuals agree to meet for coffee at a specific time and place. If one person fails to show up, the other person feels inconvenienced but understands there is no legal recourse. This situation best illustrates which characteristic of agreements relevant to contract law?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are typically not considered contracts because the parties do not intend to be legally bound by them. If one party cancels, the other cannot sue for breach of contract. This distinguishes legally binding contracts from informal social arrangements, highlighting the element of legal enforceability as the key differentiator.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are typically not considered contracts because the parties do not intend to be legally bound by them. If one party cancels, the other cannot sue for breach of contract. This distinguishes legally binding contracts from informal social arrangements, highlighting the element of legal enforceability as the key differentiator.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policyholder was hospitalized for 16 days following a fracture and subsequent surgery. They were then transferred to a specialized rehabilitation center for 78 days of physiotherapy and training, as recommended by their physician. The insurer paid the hospital cash allowance for the initial 16 days but denied payment for the subsequent 78 days, citing a policy exclusion for ‘any confinement for the purpose of nursing, convalescent, rehabilitation, extended care or rest facilities.’ Based on the principles outlined in the Insurance Authority’s guidelines and common policy wordings, what is the most likely outcome of a dispute regarding the denied benefits for the rehabilitation period?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person was hospitalized for rehabilitation after an injury. Travel insurance policies, similar to medical insurance, often have specific exclusions for hospital confinement. Case 23 highlights that confinement for rehabilitation purposes is typically not covered under the hospital benefit section, even if recommended by a doctor. The insurer correctly denied the claim because the policy definition of ‘Hospital Confinement’ excluded rehabilitation facilities, and the Complaints Panel upheld this decision based on the discharge summary confirming the purpose of the stay was rehabilitation.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person was hospitalized for rehabilitation after an injury. Travel insurance policies, similar to medical insurance, often have specific exclusions for hospital confinement. Case 23 highlights that confinement for rehabilitation purposes is typically not covered under the hospital benefit section, even if recommended by a doctor. The insurer correctly denied the claim because the policy definition of ‘Hospital Confinement’ excluded rehabilitation facilities, and the Complaints Panel upheld this decision based on the discharge summary confirming the purpose of the stay was rehabilitation.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
When a Hong Kong data user is unable to secure a formal contract with a data processor to safeguard entrusted personal data, the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) permits the use of alternative methods to ensure compliance. What is the general nature of these permitted alternative methods?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for flexibility when a data user cannot establish a contractual agreement with a data processor. In such situations, the Ordinance permits the use of ‘other means’ to ensure compliance with data protection requirements. These ‘other means’ are not explicitly defined but generally refer to non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms that a data user can implement to monitor the data processor’s adherence to data protection principles. This approach acknowledges that direct contractual enforcement might not always be feasible, but the obligation to protect personal data remains.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for flexibility when a data user cannot establish a contractual agreement with a data processor. In such situations, the Ordinance permits the use of ‘other means’ to ensure compliance with data protection requirements. These ‘other means’ are not explicitly defined but generally refer to non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms that a data user can implement to monitor the data processor’s adherence to data protection principles. This approach acknowledges that direct contractual enforcement might not always be feasible, but the obligation to protect personal data remains.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
When dealing with a complex system that shows occasional discrepancies in claim settlements, which three of the following policy features are most likely to result in a payout that surpasses the principle of strict indemnity?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of how certain insurance policy provisions can lead to a payout exceeding the actual loss incurred by the insured, moving beyond pure indemnity. ‘New for Old’ cover means that if an insured item is damaged or destroyed, it is replaced with a new item of the same type, regardless of the age or condition of the original item. This often results in a payout greater than the depreciated value of the lost item, thus exceeding strict indemnity. Agreed value policies fix the value of the insured item at the commencement of the policy. If the item is a total loss, the insurer pays the agreed value, which might be higher than the market value at the time of the loss, again going beyond simple indemnity. Reinstatement insurance allows the insurer to repair or replace the damaged property to its condition immediately before the loss occurred, often using new materials. This can also result in a payout exceeding the indemnity principle if the cost of new materials is higher than the depreciated value of the original item. The condition of average, conversely, is a principle designed to prevent underinsurance by ensuring that the payout is proportionate to the sum insured relative to the actual value of the property. If the property is underinsured, the payout will be less than the loss, reinforcing the indemnity principle, not exceeding it.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of how certain insurance policy provisions can lead to a payout exceeding the actual loss incurred by the insured, moving beyond pure indemnity. ‘New for Old’ cover means that if an insured item is damaged or destroyed, it is replaced with a new item of the same type, regardless of the age or condition of the original item. This often results in a payout greater than the depreciated value of the lost item, thus exceeding strict indemnity. Agreed value policies fix the value of the insured item at the commencement of the policy. If the item is a total loss, the insurer pays the agreed value, which might be higher than the market value at the time of the loss, again going beyond simple indemnity. Reinstatement insurance allows the insurer to repair or replace the damaged property to its condition immediately before the loss occurred, often using new materials. This can also result in a payout exceeding the indemnity principle if the cost of new materials is higher than the depreciated value of the original item. The condition of average, conversely, is a principle designed to prevent underinsurance by ensuring that the payout is proportionate to the sum insured relative to the actual value of the property. If the property is underinsured, the payout will be less than the loss, reinforcing the indemnity principle, not exceeding it.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
During a severe industrial accident, a factory worker sustained a compound fracture of his forearm, resulting in significant nerve damage and chronic pain. Despite extensive physiotherapy and surgical intervention, he is permanently unable to grip objects with his right hand, rendering him incapable of performing his previous job as a machine operator. Which of the following best describes the situation in relation to the definition of ‘loss of limb’ under personal accident insurance principles relevant to the IIQE syllabus?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the specific definition of ‘loss of limb’ as per the IIQE syllabus, which includes physical separation at or above the wrist or ankle, or a permanent loss of use of the limb. Option B is incorrect because while a severe fracture might cause significant pain and limit function, it does not automatically equate to a permanent loss of use of the limb unless that loss of use is irrecoverable and prevents any gainful occupation. Option C is incorrect as a temporary inability to perform duties, even if prolonged, does not meet the ‘permanent’ criterion for loss of use. Option D is incorrect because the definition specifically refers to the wrist or ankle as the point of separation, not the elbow or knee.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the specific definition of ‘loss of limb’ as per the IIQE syllabus, which includes physical separation at or above the wrist or ankle, or a permanent loss of use of the limb. Option B is incorrect because while a severe fracture might cause significant pain and limit function, it does not automatically equate to a permanent loss of use of the limb unless that loss of use is irrecoverable and prevents any gainful occupation. Option C is incorrect as a temporary inability to perform duties, even if prolonged, does not meet the ‘permanent’ criterion for loss of use. Option D is incorrect because the definition specifically refers to the wrist or ankle as the point of separation, not the elbow or knee.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policyholder experienced losses due to a severe storm. It was later discovered that the insured had seen multiple news reports and public announcements warning of the impending storm’s severity and advising evacuation or taking shelter, but chose to ignore these warnings and remain in their exposed location. Under which of the following general exclusions might the insurer potentially deny the claim for losses incurred?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of general exclusions in travel insurance policies, specifically focusing on the insured’s responsibility to take precautions. Clause (c)(v) of the provided text states that a general exclusion includes the insured’s failure to take precautions following warning through general mass media of intended strike, riot, civil commotion, natural disasters, or epidemic. Therefore, if an insured person ignores a widely publicized warning about an impending natural disaster and subsequently suffers losses due to it, the insurer may deny the claim based on this exclusion. Option (b) is incorrect because while failure to safeguard property is an exclusion, it’s not specifically tied to mass media warnings in that phrasing. Option (c) is incorrect as it refers to admitting liability to a third party, which is a different type of exclusion related to claims procedure. Option (d) is incorrect because it relates to the pro rata average clause, which is generally not found in travel insurance for property loss.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of general exclusions in travel insurance policies, specifically focusing on the insured’s responsibility to take precautions. Clause (c)(v) of the provided text states that a general exclusion includes the insured’s failure to take precautions following warning through general mass media of intended strike, riot, civil commotion, natural disasters, or epidemic. Therefore, if an insured person ignores a widely publicized warning about an impending natural disaster and subsequently suffers losses due to it, the insurer may deny the claim based on this exclusion. Option (b) is incorrect because while failure to safeguard property is an exclusion, it’s not specifically tied to mass media warnings in that phrasing. Option (c) is incorrect as it refers to admitting liability to a third party, which is a different type of exclusion related to claims procedure. Option (d) is incorrect because it relates to the pro rata average clause, which is generally not found in travel insurance for property loss.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
When considering the regulatory framework for personal data protection in Hong Kong, which of the following best describes the applicability of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO)?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) in Hong Kong is designed to protect the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, holding, processing, and use of personal data. Its scope is broad and encompasses both public and private sector organizations that handle personal data. Therefore, it applies to entities in both sectors, not exclusively to one or the other, nor to neither.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) in Hong Kong is designed to protect the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, holding, processing, and use of personal data. Its scope is broad and encompasses both public and private sector organizations that handle personal data. Therefore, it applies to entities in both sectors, not exclusively to one or the other, nor to neither.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policyholder, after recovering from a fractured femur requiring surgery, was subsequently admitted to a specialized rehabilitation center for physiotherapy and regaining mobility. The insurer provided daily cash benefits for the initial hospital stay but denied coverage for the period spent at the rehabilitation center, citing a policy clause excluding confinement for ‘rehabilitation’ purposes. Based on the principles of hospital benefit coverage in travel insurance, what is the most likely justification for the insurer’s decision?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person was hospitalized for rehabilitation after an injury. Travel insurance policies, similar to medical insurance, often have specific exclusions for hospital confinement. Case 23 highlights that confinement solely for rehabilitation purposes is typically not covered under the hospital benefit section, even if recommended by a doctor. The insurer’s refusal to pay for the rehabilitation period aligns with this exclusion, as the primary purpose of the stay was rehabilitation, not acute medical treatment for the initial injury.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person was hospitalized for rehabilitation after an injury. Travel insurance policies, similar to medical insurance, often have specific exclusions for hospital confinement. Case 23 highlights that confinement solely for rehabilitation purposes is typically not covered under the hospital benefit section, even if recommended by a doctor. The insurer’s refusal to pay for the rehabilitation period aligns with this exclusion, as the primary purpose of the stay was rehabilitation, not acute medical treatment for the initial injury.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is advising a client on the necessity of insurable interest for a proposed policy. The client is confused about whether this interest must be maintained continuously. Which of the following statements best clarifies the requirement for insurable interest in Hong Kong insurance contracts?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘insurable interest’ and when it is required in insurance contracts, as per Hong Kong insurance regulations. Insurable interest is a fundamental principle that the policyholder must have a financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. While it’s generally required at the inception of the policy, its necessity can vary depending on the type of insurance and the specific circumstances. For instance, in life insurance, it’s typically required at inception, but not necessarily at the time of a claim if the policy has been assigned. In property insurance, it’s usually required at both inception and at the time of loss. The question probes this nuance by presenting a scenario where an agent is advising a client on a policy. The correct answer highlights that insurable interest is a prerequisite for a valid contract, but its continuous existence is not always mandated throughout the policy’s term, depending on the policy type and assignment. The other options present common misconceptions or incomplete understandings of the principle.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘insurable interest’ and when it is required in insurance contracts, as per Hong Kong insurance regulations. Insurable interest is a fundamental principle that the policyholder must have a financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. While it’s generally required at the inception of the policy, its necessity can vary depending on the type of insurance and the specific circumstances. For instance, in life insurance, it’s typically required at inception, but not necessarily at the time of a claim if the policy has been assigned. In property insurance, it’s usually required at both inception and at the time of loss. The question probes this nuance by presenting a scenario where an agent is advising a client on a policy. The correct answer highlights that insurable interest is a prerequisite for a valid contract, but its continuous existence is not always mandated throughout the policy’s term, depending on the policy type and assignment. The other options present common misconceptions or incomplete understandings of the principle.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy following a trip curtailment due to an accident, an insured individual sought reimbursement for an executive class airfare for their immediate return flight. The insurer offered reimbursement only for an economy class ticket, citing policy terms that specify indemnity for ‘additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin (based on economy class fare for any transportation media)’. The insured argued that the economy class option would have meant a one-hour delay in departure. Based on the provided policy wording and common industry practice for curtailment cover, what is the most appropriate basis for the insurer’s decision?
Correct
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is normally expected to travel on economy class tickets in such situations.
Incorrect
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is normally expected to travel on economy class tickets in such situations.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy, an insured discovered their claim for a delayed flight was denied. The policy documents clearly stated that travel delay benefits are provided only for specific causes, such as adverse weather, strikes, or equipment malfunctions. The flight in question was delayed due to a logistical issue involving the repositioning of the aircraft, a reason not explicitly listed in the policy’s covered perils. Based on the principles of insurance contract interpretation, what is the most likely reason for the claim’s rejection?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where a flight departed on time, but the insured submitted a claim for a travel delay. The policy’s coverage for travel delay is typically based on specific, named perils. In this case, the insurer rejected the claim because the cause of the delay (aircraft rotation) was not listed as an insured peril in the policy. This highlights that travel delay coverage is usually on a ‘named perils’ basis, meaning only the explicitly listed causes of delay are covered, rather than an ‘all risks’ basis where all causes are covered unless specifically excluded. Therefore, the insurer’s rejection is valid if aircraft rotation is not a covered peril.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where a flight departed on time, but the insured submitted a claim for a travel delay. The policy’s coverage for travel delay is typically based on specific, named perils. In this case, the insurer rejected the claim because the cause of the delay (aircraft rotation) was not listed as an insured peril in the policy. This highlights that travel delay coverage is usually on a ‘named perils’ basis, meaning only the explicitly listed causes of delay are covered, rather than an ‘all risks’ basis where all causes are covered unless specifically excluded. Therefore, the insurer’s rejection is valid if aircraft rotation is not a covered peril.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an applicant for a life insurance policy fails to disclose a prior minor claim for a sprained ankle, which they considered insignificant. The insurer later discovers this omission during a background check. Under the principles governing insurance contracts in Hong Kong, what is the most likely consequence of this non-disclosure, considering the duty of utmost good faith?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the principle of ‘Utmost Good Faith’ (最高誠信) in insurance contracts. This principle mandates that both parties, the insurer and the insured, must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk being insured. A failure to do so, even if unintentional, can render the contract voidable. In this scenario, the applicant’s omission of a previous claim, which is a material fact, constitutes a breach of this duty. The insurer’s subsequent discovery of this omission allows them to repudiate the contract. Option B is incorrect because while a warranty is a strict undertaking, the core issue here is the breach of the duty of utmost good faith in disclosure. Option C is incorrect as vicarious liability (轉承責任) relates to liability for the actions of another, which is not directly applicable here. Option D is incorrect because an uninsured peril (不保危險) refers to a cause of loss not covered by the policy, which is distinct from the duty of disclosure.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the principle of ‘Utmost Good Faith’ (最高誠信) in insurance contracts. This principle mandates that both parties, the insurer and the insured, must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk being insured. A failure to do so, even if unintentional, can render the contract voidable. In this scenario, the applicant’s omission of a previous claim, which is a material fact, constitutes a breach of this duty. The insurer’s subsequent discovery of this omission allows them to repudiate the contract. Option B is incorrect because while a warranty is a strict undertaking, the core issue here is the breach of the duty of utmost good faith in disclosure. Option C is incorrect as vicarious liability (轉承責任) relates to liability for the actions of another, which is not directly applicable here. Option D is incorrect because an uninsured peril (不保危險) refers to a cause of loss not covered by the policy, which is distinct from the duty of disclosure.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a client expresses concern about a recently purchased travel insurance policy. They received the policy documents three days ago and have decided it doesn’t meet their needs. According to the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41), what is the client generally entitled to if they wish to cancel the policy within the initial review period?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the ‘period of free look’ in insurance contracts, a mandatory provision under Hong Kong insurance regulations. The period allows policyholders to review the policy documents and decide if they wish to proceed. If they cancel within this period, they are entitled to a full refund of any premiums paid, minus any administrative expenses that are explicitly stated and permitted by law. This provision is designed to protect consumers by ensuring they have adequate time to understand their commitments before being bound by the contract.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the ‘period of free look’ in insurance contracts, a mandatory provision under Hong Kong insurance regulations. The period allows policyholders to review the policy documents and decide if they wish to proceed. If they cancel within this period, they are entitled to a full refund of any premiums paid, minus any administrative expenses that are explicitly stated and permitted by law. This provision is designed to protect consumers by ensuring they have adequate time to understand their commitments before being bound by the contract.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy following a claim for trip curtailment due to an accident, an insured person argued for reimbursement of an executive class airfare for their immediate return flight. They stated that the economy class option was available only for a flight departing an hour later. The insurer, however, limited the reimbursement to the economy class fare, citing policy terms and the absence of a medical necessity for an immediate upgrade. Which of the following best reflects the insurer’s justification based on typical travel insurance policy provisions for trip curtailment?
Correct
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is generally expected to travel in economy class for such claims.
Incorrect
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is generally expected to travel in economy class for such claims.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insured individual discovered their wallet was missing after leaving it unattended on a plane during a flight. The airline located the wallet, but the cash inside was gone. The policy’s Personal Money section covers losses of cash and banknotes directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. Based on the principles illustrated in similar cases, how would an insurer most likely assess this claim?
Correct
The Personal Money cover typically indemnifies for losses of cash, banknotes, travellers’ cheques, and money orders directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was stolen, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of negligence, such as leaving the wallet unattended in a public place, might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for a theft claim under this specific cover. The loss, in this interpretation, is seen as a consequence of the insured’s carelessness rather than a pure act of theft against a secured item. Therefore, the insurer would likely decline the claim based on the argument that the loss was not a direct result of theft as defined by the policy, but rather a consequence of the insured’s own actions.
Incorrect
The Personal Money cover typically indemnifies for losses of cash, banknotes, travellers’ cheques, and money orders directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was stolen, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of negligence, such as leaving the wallet unattended in a public place, might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for a theft claim under this specific cover. The loss, in this interpretation, is seen as a consequence of the insured’s carelessness rather than a pure act of theft against a secured item. Therefore, the insurer would likely decline the claim based on the argument that the loss was not a direct result of theft as defined by the policy, but rather a consequence of the insured’s own actions.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a client expresses a desire to purchase a standalone, high-value policy for a specific expensive item they plan to take on an upcoming trip. The travel agent arranging the client’s tour package is registered as a travel insurance agent. Under the regulations governing travel insurance agents, what is the primary limitation on the agent’s ability to facilitate this specific purchase?
Correct
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to cover the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent has not themselves organized. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot sell a policy that covers a specific valuable item like a watch for its full value if it’s not part of the standard travel insurance package they are authorized to offer, even if the item is intended for travel.
Incorrect
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to cover the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent has not themselves organized. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot sell a policy that covers a specific valuable item like a watch for its full value if it’s not part of the standard travel insurance package they are authorized to offer, even if the item is intended for travel.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an applicant for a life insurance policy fails to disclose a significant past claim related to a pre-existing condition, although the question on the application form was not explicitly phrased to elicit this specific detail. The insurer later discovers this omission. Under the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), which fundamental principle of insurance contracts has been most directly violated, allowing the insurer to potentially void the policy?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the principle of ‘Utmost Good Faith’ (最高誠信) in insurance contracts. This principle mandates that both parties, the insurer and the insured, must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk being insured. A failure to do so, even if unintentional, can render the contract voidable. In this scenario, the applicant’s omission of a previous claim, which is a material fact, constitutes a breach of this duty. The insurer’s right to void the policy stems directly from this breach of utmost good faith, not from the concept of vicarious liability (which deals with liability for another’s actions), warranty (which is an absolute undertaking), or waiver (which is an act of forgiveness).
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the principle of ‘Utmost Good Faith’ (最高誠信) in insurance contracts. This principle mandates that both parties, the insurer and the insured, must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk being insured. A failure to do so, even if unintentional, can render the contract voidable. In this scenario, the applicant’s omission of a previous claim, which is a material fact, constitutes a breach of this duty. The insurer’s right to void the policy stems directly from this breach of utmost good faith, not from the concept of vicarious liability (which deals with liability for another’s actions), warranty (which is an absolute undertaking), or waiver (which is an act of forgiveness).
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
When dealing with a complex system that shows occasional inconsistencies in public access to official records, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) regarding its registers of insurance agents and their representatives?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for maintaining a register of insurance agents and their appointed Responsible Officers and Technical Representatives. This register, along with a sub-register, is kept in a format determined by the Insurance Authority (IA) and must be accessible for public inspection. This accessibility is crucial for transparency and allows the public to verify the registration status of individuals acting as insurance agents. Therefore, the IARB must ensure that these registers are available for public viewing.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for maintaining a register of insurance agents and their appointed Responsible Officers and Technical Representatives. This register, along with a sub-register, is kept in a format determined by the Insurance Authority (IA) and must be accessible for public inspection. This accessibility is crucial for transparency and allows the public to verify the registration status of individuals acting as insurance agents. Therefore, the IARB must ensure that these registers are available for public viewing.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
During the underwriting process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, an applicant fails to disclose a significant prior fire incident at a similar property they owned, which was settled by a previous insurer. Upon discovering this omission during a subsequent claim investigation, the insurer determines that this non-disclosure was negligent. Under the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), which of the following actions is the insurer entitled to take regarding the policy?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached by the insured. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the contract if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This avoidance typically means the contract is treated as if it never existed from the inception. Consequently, premiums paid are generally returnable to the insured, unless the breach was fraudulent. The insurer does not have the option to selectively apply the avoidance to specific claims or periods of the policy; the entire contract is voidable. Therefore, the insurer must return premiums paid, and the contract is voided from the start.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached by the insured. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the contract if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This avoidance typically means the contract is treated as if it never existed from the inception. Consequently, premiums paid are generally returnable to the insured, unless the breach was fraudulent. The insurer does not have the option to selectively apply the avoidance to specific claims or periods of the policy; the entire contract is voidable. Therefore, the insurer must return premiums paid, and the contract is voided from the start.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a licensed travel agent, registered as a travel insurance agent, is approached by a client who is planning an overseas trip. The client wishes to purchase a comprehensive ‘all risks’ policy for a valuable piece of jewellery they will be taking on the trip. The travel agent has arranged the client’s flights and accommodation. Under the regulations governing travel insurance agents, which of the following actions is the travel insurance agent permitted to take regarding this request?
Correct
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot offer a policy for a precious watch that is not part of the travel package they arranged, even if the watch is intended for travel, because such a policy would fall outside the defined ‘travel insurance’ and ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’.
Incorrect
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot offer a policy for a precious watch that is not part of the travel package they arranged, even if the watch is intended for travel, because such a policy would fall outside the defined ‘travel insurance’ and ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a Registered Person (RP) who is authorized to conduct sales of specified investment products (RSTB) has met all their Continuing Professional Development (CPD) obligations for the current assessment year. Subject to fulfilling all other stipulated fitness and properness criteria, what is the primary implication for their registration status with the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) concerning the next 12-month period?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP registered to engage in the sale of specified investment products (RSTB) who has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year is considered qualified to maintain their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field, particularly concerning investment products.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP registered to engage in the sale of specified investment products (RSTB) who has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year is considered qualified to maintain their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field, particularly concerning investment products.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, it was discovered that an individual holds a significant ownership stake in an insurance brokerage firm and also works as an employee for an insurance agency. This individual actively provides insurance advice to clients of the insurance agency. Under the relevant provisions of the Insurance Ordinance concerning the conduct of insurance intermediaries, what is the implication of this individual’s dual role and activities?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the restrictions placed on individuals holding multiple roles within the insurance intermediary sector, specifically concerning the provision of advice. According to the provided text, a proprietor or employee of an insurance broker who provides insurance advice to a policyholder or potential policyholder is prohibited from being a proprietor or employee of, or partner in, an insurance agent. This restriction is designed to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure clarity in the advisory role. Option (a) correctly reflects this prohibition. Option (b) is incorrect because while a director of an insurance agent can be a director of another insurance agent or broker, they cannot provide advice to the other entity’s clients. Option (c) is incorrect as it misstates the restriction; the prohibition applies when advice is provided, not simply by being associated with both. Option (d) is incorrect because it suggests a blanket prohibition on any association, which is not the case; the restriction is tied to the act of providing advice.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the restrictions placed on individuals holding multiple roles within the insurance intermediary sector, specifically concerning the provision of advice. According to the provided text, a proprietor or employee of an insurance broker who provides insurance advice to a policyholder or potential policyholder is prohibited from being a proprietor or employee of, or partner in, an insurance agent. This restriction is designed to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure clarity in the advisory role. Option (a) correctly reflects this prohibition. Option (b) is incorrect because while a director of an insurance agent can be a director of another insurance agent or broker, they cannot provide advice to the other entity’s clients. Option (c) is incorrect as it misstates the restriction; the prohibition applies when advice is provided, not simply by being associated with both. Option (d) is incorrect because it suggests a blanket prohibition on any association, which is not the case; the restriction is tied to the act of providing advice.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an authorized insurer operating in Hong Kong is found to be conducting general business activities. This insurer is also specifically authorized to undertake statutory insurance business. Based on the Insurance Companies Ordinance, what is the absolute minimum solvency margin this insurer must maintain for its general business operations?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the minimum solvency margin requirements for general business insurers in Hong Kong. According to the provided text, for general business, the solvency margin is calculated based on either ‘Premium Income’ or ‘Claims Outstanding’, whichever yields a higher figure. Crucially, there is a minimum requirement of HK$10 million for general business. However, if the insurer is carrying on ‘statutory insurance business’, this minimum is doubled to HK$20 million. The scenario describes an insurer engaged in general business that also handles statutory insurance business, thus triggering the higher minimum requirement.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the minimum solvency margin requirements for general business insurers in Hong Kong. According to the provided text, for general business, the solvency margin is calculated based on either ‘Premium Income’ or ‘Claims Outstanding’, whichever yields a higher figure. Crucially, there is a minimum requirement of HK$10 million for general business. However, if the insurer is carrying on ‘statutory insurance business’, this minimum is doubled to HK$20 million. The scenario describes an insurer engaged in general business that also handles statutory insurance business, thus triggering the higher minimum requirement.