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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is helping a prospective client complete a life insurance application. The client seems unsure about certain details regarding their medical history. The agent, wanting to expedite the process and ensure a complete application, begins to fill in some of the blanks based on their understanding of the client’s general health. Which of the following actions best aligns with the regulatory requirements for assisting with proposal completion?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insurance agent is assisting a potential policyholder with a proposal form. According to the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents, specifically section 5/32 (b)(1), a registered person must refrain from influencing the potential policyholder and must make it clear that the answers provided are the policyholder’s own responsibility. This ensures the integrity of the application process and prevents misrepresentation. Option B suggests the agent should proactively fill in details based on assumptions, which is a direct violation of this principle. Option C, while mentioning clarity, doesn’t address the core responsibility of the applicant for their statements. Option D suggests the agent should only provide information if asked, which is too passive and doesn’t fulfill the duty to ensure the applicant understands their responsibility.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insurance agent is assisting a potential policyholder with a proposal form. According to the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents, specifically section 5/32 (b)(1), a registered person must refrain from influencing the potential policyholder and must make it clear that the answers provided are the policyholder’s own responsibility. This ensures the integrity of the application process and prevents misrepresentation. Option B suggests the agent should proactively fill in details based on assumptions, which is a direct violation of this principle. Option C, while mentioning clarity, doesn’t address the core responsibility of the applicant for their statements. Option D suggests the agent should only provide information if asked, which is too passive and doesn’t fulfill the duty to ensure the applicant understands their responsibility.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A policyholder, previously employed as a firefighter, is unable to continue in that role due to a work-related injury. While a medical assessment confirms functional limitations preventing a return to firefighting, it also indicates the individual can still perform other types of work. The insurer, citing the policy’s definition of Total and Permanent Disability as the inability to engage in *any* gainful occupation, denies a waiver of premium benefit. The insurer’s stance is further supported by evidence that the individual’s particulars have been circulated for potential alternative government roles. Based on the principles of interpreting such policy definitions, which of the following best reflects the likely outcome of a dispute regarding the waiver of premium claim?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an individual, previously a fireman, sustained an injury that prevented them from continuing their specific occupation. However, the policy’s definition of Total and Permanent Disability (TPD) requires the inability to engage in *any* gainful occupation. The Fire Services Department’s efforts to find alternative employment for the individual, coupled with the Complaints Panel’s view that the disability did not preclude other forms of work, indicate that the TPD definition was not met. Therefore, the insurer’s decision to deny the waiver of premium claim, based on the insured’s potential to engage in other work, is supported by the policy’s restrictive definition of TPD.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an individual, previously a fireman, sustained an injury that prevented them from continuing their specific occupation. However, the policy’s definition of Total and Permanent Disability (TPD) requires the inability to engage in *any* gainful occupation. The Fire Services Department’s efforts to find alternative employment for the individual, coupled with the Complaints Panel’s view that the disability did not preclude other forms of work, indicate that the TPD definition was not met. Therefore, the insurer’s decision to deny the waiver of premium claim, based on the insured’s potential to engage in other work, is supported by the policy’s restrictive definition of TPD.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
During the underwriting process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, an applicant fails to disclose a significant history of electrical fires in their previous property, which they knew was material to the insurer’s risk assessment. After a fire occurs at the new property, the insurer discovers this non-disclosure. Under the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), what is the insurer’s primary recourse regarding the policy?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the entire contract from its inception if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This means the policy is treated as if it never existed. Premiums paid are generally returned, unless the breach was fraudulent on the part of the insured. The key here is that the insurer cannot selectively avoid the contract for a specific claim or period while keeping it valid for others; the entire contract is at risk. Therefore, the most accurate remedy is to void the contract from the beginning.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the entire contract from its inception if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This means the policy is treated as if it never existed. Premiums paid are generally returned, unless the breach was fraudulent on the part of the insured. The key here is that the insurer cannot selectively avoid the contract for a specific claim or period while keeping it valid for others; the entire contract is at risk. Therefore, the most accurate remedy is to void the contract from the beginning.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
During a journey, an insured individual experienced dizziness and was diagnosed with hypertension and tonsillitis. The attending physician advised hospitalization to manage the high blood pressure. The insured requested emergency evacuation, but the insurer denied this, citing the insured’s long-standing hypertension, a condition explicitly excluded from the policy. The ICCB later ruled that the insurer could deny the claim unless the insured could demonstrate that the dizziness was not linked to her hypertension. This case illustrates the importance of which principle in travel insurance emergency services?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person requires immediate medical attention due to dizziness. The insurer denied the request for emergency evacuation because the insured had a pre-existing condition of hypertension, which was explicitly excluded from the policy. The Insurance Complaints Committee (ICCB) upheld the insurer’s decision, stating that the insured needed to prove her condition was unrelated to hypertension. This highlights the principle that pre-existing conditions, especially those excluded by the policy, are generally not covered under emergency services, even if they manifest during the insured trip. The insurer’s responsibility is to cover unforeseen events and emergencies that are not a result of known, excluded conditions.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person requires immediate medical attention due to dizziness. The insurer denied the request for emergency evacuation because the insured had a pre-existing condition of hypertension, which was explicitly excluded from the policy. The Insurance Complaints Committee (ICCB) upheld the insurer’s decision, stating that the insured needed to prove her condition was unrelated to hypertension. This highlights the principle that pre-existing conditions, especially those excluded by the policy, are generally not covered under emergency services, even if they manifest during the insured trip. The insurer’s responsibility is to cover unforeseen events and emergencies that are not a result of known, excluded conditions.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
During the underwriting process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, an applicant failed to disclose a significant history of minor electrical fires in their previous property, which they considered insignificant. Upon discovering this omission after a major fire loss occurred, the insurer determined that this non-disclosure was material to the risk assessment. Under the principles of utmost good faith, what is the insurer’s primary recourse regarding the policy?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the entire contract from its inception if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This means the policy is treated as if it never existed. Premiums paid are generally returned, unless the breach was fraudulent on the part of the insured. The key here is that the insurer cannot selectively avoid the contract for a specific claim or period while keeping it valid for others; the entire contract is at risk. Therefore, the most accurate remedy is to void the contract from the beginning.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the remedies available to an insurer when the duty of utmost good faith is breached. Specifically, it focuses on the insurer’s right to avoid the contract. According to the principles of insurance law, an insurer can avoid the entire contract from its inception if there’s a breach of utmost good faith. This means the policy is treated as if it never existed. Premiums paid are generally returned, unless the breach was fraudulent on the part of the insured. The key here is that the insurer cannot selectively avoid the contract for a specific claim or period while keeping it valid for others; the entire contract is at risk. Therefore, the most accurate remedy is to void the contract from the beginning.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
An insurance company, having collected customer data solely for the purpose of administering their existing policies, wishes to leverage this data to promote a new range of investment funds offered by an affiliated company. This promotion is not directly related to the original purpose of policy administration. Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), what is the primary legal consideration for the insurance company before using the customer data for this new promotional activity?
Correct
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, the insurance company is proposing to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without such consent, this action would contravene Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t directly govern the purpose of data usage. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data policies, not the specific usage of data for new purposes. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the permissible uses of data.
Incorrect
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, the insurance company is proposing to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without such consent, this action would contravene Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t directly govern the purpose of data usage. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data policies, not the specific usage of data for new purposes. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the permissible uses of data.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is advising a potential client on a new general insurance policy. Which of the following actions are considered essential components of the agent’s professional conduct under the relevant regulations for general insurance and restricted scope travel business?
Correct
The Conduct of Insurance Agents for General Insurance Business and Restricted Scope Travel Business mandates several key principles for agents. Firstly, agents must only offer advice when they possess the necessary expertise and knowledge to do so effectively, ensuring the client receives sound guidance. Secondly, it is crucial for agents to clearly identify themselves and their affiliation before engaging in any business discussions, promoting transparency and trust. Thirdly, when comparing different policies, agents are obligated to explain the distinctions between them, enabling clients to make informed choices. Finally, a fundamental duty is to clearly articulate the policy’s coverage and ensure the client comprehends what they are purchasing, thereby preventing misunderstandings and future disputes. All these points are essential for ethical and compliant insurance sales practices.
Incorrect
The Conduct of Insurance Agents for General Insurance Business and Restricted Scope Travel Business mandates several key principles for agents. Firstly, agents must only offer advice when they possess the necessary expertise and knowledge to do so effectively, ensuring the client receives sound guidance. Secondly, it is crucial for agents to clearly identify themselves and their affiliation before engaging in any business discussions, promoting transparency and trust. Thirdly, when comparing different policies, agents are obligated to explain the distinctions between them, enabling clients to make informed choices. Finally, a fundamental duty is to clearly articulate the policy’s coverage and ensure the client comprehends what they are purchasing, thereby preventing misunderstandings and future disputes. All these points are essential for ethical and compliant insurance sales practices.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
When a company aims to minimize the financial repercussions of potential future losses, regardless of how effective its loss prevention strategies are, it is engaging in a process that involves various financial tools. Which of the following best describes the overarching strategy that utilizes methods such as retaining risk, transferring risk through non-insurance contracts, self-insuring, and purchasing insurance?
Correct
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the financial consequences of a loss, often for smaller, predictable losses. Self-insurance is a formalised way of assuming risk, where an entity sets aside funds to cover potential losses. Risk transfer, other than insurance, could involve contractual agreements like indemnities or guarantees. Therefore, while insurance is a key component, a comprehensive risk financing programme encompasses a wider array of methods to minimise the impact of adverse future events.
Incorrect
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the financial consequences of a loss, often for smaller, predictable losses. Self-insurance is a formalised way of assuming risk, where an entity sets aside funds to cover potential losses. Risk transfer, other than insurance, could involve contractual agreements like indemnities or guarantees. Therefore, while insurance is a key component, a comprehensive risk financing programme encompasses a wider array of methods to minimise the impact of adverse future events.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
During a travel insurance claim investigation, an insured person sought reimbursement for medical expenses incurred due to a leg injury sustained while disembarking from a taxi. The incident occurred within Hong Kong, which the policy explicitly defines as the ‘Place of Origin’. While the policy’s general terms indicated cover commenced upon departure from the insured’s residence, the specific section for Medical Expenses Benefit stated that benefits were only applicable for conditions contracted or sustained outside the ‘Place of Origin’. Based on these policy provisions, what is the insurer’s likely stance on this claim?
Correct
The scenario highlights the importance of precise policy definitions in insurance contracts, particularly concerning medical expenses cover. The policy explicitly defines ‘Place of Origin’ as Hong Kong and stipulates that medical expenses benefits are only applicable for bodily injuries or sickness contracted or sustained outside this defined area. In Case 20, the insured sustained an injury (twisted leg) while alighting from a taxi within Hong Kong, which is the ‘Place of Origin’. Despite the general commencement of cover from leaving one’s residence, the specific terms of the Medical Expenses Benefit Section clearly exclude claims for incidents occurring within the Place of Origin. Therefore, the insurer’s rejection of the claim for medical expenses is consistent with the policy’s terms and conditions, as the injury did not meet the geographical requirement for this specific benefit.
Incorrect
The scenario highlights the importance of precise policy definitions in insurance contracts, particularly concerning medical expenses cover. The policy explicitly defines ‘Place of Origin’ as Hong Kong and stipulates that medical expenses benefits are only applicable for bodily injuries or sickness contracted or sustained outside this defined area. In Case 20, the insured sustained an injury (twisted leg) while alighting from a taxi within Hong Kong, which is the ‘Place of Origin’. Despite the general commencement of cover from leaving one’s residence, the specific terms of the Medical Expenses Benefit Section clearly exclude claims for incidents occurring within the Place of Origin. Therefore, the insurer’s rejection of the claim for medical expenses is consistent with the policy’s terms and conditions, as the injury did not meet the geographical requirement for this specific benefit.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a property insurance claim arose from damage to a five-year-old washing machine due to a covered peril. The insurer decided to replace the damaged machine with a brand-new model of equivalent functionality. If the original washing machine had depreciated by 40% of its original value, and the cost of the new replacement is HK$8,000, under the principle of indemnity, what is the maximum amount the insurer should pay for the replacement to avoid over-indemnifying the insured?
Correct
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is ‘reinstatement,’ which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement. If the insurer chooses to replace the damaged item with a new one, and the original item had depreciated, providing a brand-new replacement would place the insured in a better financial position than before the loss, thus violating the principle of indemnity. Therefore, when a new item replaces a depreciated one, the insurer is entitled to deduct the amount of depreciation from the settlement to maintain the principle of indemnity. This ensures the insured receives compensation equivalent to the value of the lost item at the time of the loss, not its replacement cost as a new item.
Incorrect
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is ‘reinstatement,’ which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement. If the insurer chooses to replace the damaged item with a new one, and the original item had depreciated, providing a brand-new replacement would place the insured in a better financial position than before the loss, thus violating the principle of indemnity. Therefore, when a new item replaces a depreciated one, the insurer is entitled to deduct the amount of depreciation from the settlement to maintain the principle of indemnity. This ensures the insured receives compensation equivalent to the value of the lost item at the time of the loss, not its replacement cost as a new item.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a property owner discovers that a fire in their building was caused by defective electrical work performed by an external contractor. The property owner’s insurance policy covers the damage. After the insurer settles the claim and compensates the property owner for the losses incurred, the insurer wishes to recover the paid amount from the contractor responsible for the faulty wiring. Under the Insurance Ordinance, what is the legal principle that empowers the insurer to pursue the contractor for the compensation provided?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the principle of subrogation in insurance, which allows an insurer to step into the shoes of the insured to recover losses from a responsible third party after paying a claim. The scenario describes a situation where a fire was caused by faulty wiring from a third-party contractor. After the insurance company indemnifies the policyholder for the damage, the insurer gains the right to pursue the contractor for the amount paid. Option (a) correctly identifies this right as subrogation. Option (b) is incorrect because indemnity is the principle of restoring the insured to their pre-loss financial position, not the insurer’s right to recover from a third party. Option (c) is incorrect; while a proposal form is part of the insurance contract, it doesn’t grant the right to recover from a third party. Option (d) is incorrect because a warranty is a promise or condition in the policy, and its breach by the insured would not give the insurer the right to recover from a negligent third party.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the principle of subrogation in insurance, which allows an insurer to step into the shoes of the insured to recover losses from a responsible third party after paying a claim. The scenario describes a situation where a fire was caused by faulty wiring from a third-party contractor. After the insurance company indemnifies the policyholder for the damage, the insurer gains the right to pursue the contractor for the amount paid. Option (a) correctly identifies this right as subrogation. Option (b) is incorrect because indemnity is the principle of restoring the insured to their pre-loss financial position, not the insurer’s right to recover from a third party. Option (c) is incorrect; while a proposal form is part of the insurance contract, it doesn’t grant the right to recover from a third party. Option (d) is incorrect because a warranty is a promise or condition in the policy, and its breach by the insured would not give the insurer the right to recover from a negligent third party.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance underwriter observes that the application forms for single-trip policies do not request information regarding the applicant’s pre-existing medical conditions. This practice is a deliberate design choice reflecting the insurer’s risk assessment strategy for short-term travel coverage. Which of the following best explains this underwriting approach?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of underwriting practices in travel insurance, specifically concerning single trip policies versus annual policies. The provided text explicitly states that single trip risks are not individually underwritten, meaning the insurer does not typically inquire about the insured’s medical history for these policies. This contrasts with annual policies, where such inquiries are common. Therefore, a travel insurance policy that does not ask for detailed medical history for a specific trip is consistent with the underwriting approach for single trip risks.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of underwriting practices in travel insurance, specifically concerning single trip policies versus annual policies. The provided text explicitly states that single trip risks are not individually underwritten, meaning the insurer does not typically inquire about the insured’s medical history for these policies. This contrasts with annual policies, where such inquiries are common. Therefore, a travel insurance policy that does not ask for detailed medical history for a specific trip is consistent with the underwriting approach for single trip risks.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policy’s baggage and personal effects section is being examined. An insured reported damage to a glass souvenir purchased abroad, which was discovered upon arrival in Hong Kong. The insurer declined the claim, citing a clause that excludes coverage for items deemed fragile. This aligns with standard industry practice for such policies.
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured’s glass ornament was damaged during transit. The insurer denied the claim based on an exclusion for ‘fragile articles’. Case 28 explicitly states that insurers typically classify glass items as fragile for the purpose of such exclusions. Therefore, the insurer’s denial is consistent with the policy’s terms and common industry practice regarding fragile items.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured’s glass ornament was damaged during transit. The insurer denied the claim based on an exclusion for ‘fragile articles’. Case 28 explicitly states that insurers typically classify glass items as fragile for the purpose of such exclusions. Therefore, the insurer’s denial is consistent with the policy’s terms and common industry practice regarding fragile items.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
When a company implements a comprehensive strategy to manage potential financial setbacks, which of the following activities would be considered a core component of its risk financing programme, designed to lessen the impact of adverse future events?
Correct
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the financial consequences of a loss, often for smaller, predictable losses. Self-insurance is a formalised way of assuming risk, where an entity sets aside funds to cover potential losses. Risk transfer, other than insurance, could involve contractual agreements with other parties to bear certain risks. Therefore, all these are components of a risk financing programme aimed at minimising the adverse effects of future losses.
Incorrect
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the financial consequences of a loss, often for smaller, predictable losses. Self-insurance is a formalised way of assuming risk, where an entity sets aside funds to cover potential losses. Risk transfer, other than insurance, could involve contractual agreements with other parties to bear certain risks. Therefore, all these are components of a risk financing programme aimed at minimising the adverse effects of future losses.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
During a review of a travel insurance claim, the Complaints Panel is assessing whether an applicant failed to disclose a history of stomach ailments that spanned over two decades, including enteritis, TB, and ulcer syndrome, which were treated intermittently. The applicant argues that these conditions were minor, asymptomatic for the last ten years, and that they genuinely forgot about them. The panel has a doctor’s report confirming the ailments were short-lived and not serious. Under the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard, what is the primary consideration for the panel when deciding if the insurer’s rejection of the claim due to non-disclosure was justified?
Correct
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This means the panel assesses whether it is more likely than not that the insured was aware of the condition. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about past ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. The panel considered the doctor’s report stating the ailments were short-lived and not serious. Despite the long history of treatments for enteritis, TB, and ulcer syndrome, the panel found the insurer’s repudiation of the policy to be disproportionate, awarding the hospital cash benefit. This indicates that the panel weighs the severity and recency of undisclosed conditions against the insured’s knowledge and the insurer’s underwriting decision.
Incorrect
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This means the panel assesses whether it is more likely than not that the insured was aware of the condition. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about past ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. The panel considered the doctor’s report stating the ailments were short-lived and not serious. Despite the long history of treatments for enteritis, TB, and ulcer syndrome, the panel found the insurer’s repudiation of the policy to be disproportionate, awarding the hospital cash benefit. This indicates that the panel weighs the severity and recency of undisclosed conditions against the insured’s knowledge and the insurer’s underwriting decision.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an individual is found to be an employee of an insurance broker and also provides insurance advice to potential clients of that brokerage. Simultaneously, this individual is employed by an insurance agent. Under the relevant provisions of the Insurance Ordinance concerning the conduct of insurance intermediaries, what is the regulatory standing of this individual’s dual employment and advisory role?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the restrictions placed on individuals holding multiple roles within the insurance intermediary sector, specifically concerning the provision of advice. According to the provided text, a proprietor or employee of an insurance broker who provides insurance advice to a policyholder or potential policyholder is prohibited from being a proprietor or employee of, or partner in, an insurance agent. This restriction is designed to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure clarity in the advisory role. Option (a) correctly reflects this prohibition. Option (b) is incorrect because while a director can provide advice for one entity, they cannot do so for both if they are a director of both an insurance agent and another insurance agent or broker. Option (c) is incorrect as it misrepresents the restriction; an employee of a broker providing advice cannot simultaneously be an employee of an agent. Option (d) is also incorrect as it suggests a proprietor of an agent can be a director of a broker without any advisory restrictions, which contradicts the regulations.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the restrictions placed on individuals holding multiple roles within the insurance intermediary sector, specifically concerning the provision of advice. According to the provided text, a proprietor or employee of an insurance broker who provides insurance advice to a policyholder or potential policyholder is prohibited from being a proprietor or employee of, or partner in, an insurance agent. This restriction is designed to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure clarity in the advisory role. Option (a) correctly reflects this prohibition. Option (b) is incorrect because while a director can provide advice for one entity, they cannot do so for both if they are a director of both an insurance agent and another insurance agent or broker. Option (c) is incorrect as it misrepresents the restriction; an employee of a broker providing advice cannot simultaneously be an employee of an agent. Option (d) is also incorrect as it suggests a proprietor of an agent can be a director of a broker without any advisory restrictions, which contradicts the regulations.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is examining a property insurance policy they arranged for a client last year. The client had a clear insurable interest when the policy was taken out. However, the client has since sold the property to a third party and no longer has any financial stake in it. If a loss were to occur to the property now, what is the general principle regarding the requirement of insurable interest for this policy to be valid at the time of the claim?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘insurable interest’ and when it is required in insurance contracts, as per Hong Kong insurance regulations. Insurable interest is a fundamental principle that an insured must have a financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. While it’s generally required at the inception of the policy, its necessity can vary depending on the type of insurance. For instance, in life insurance, it’s typically required at inception, but for property insurance, it must exist at the time of loss. The question probes this nuance by presenting a scenario where an individual insures a property they no longer have a financial connection to at the time of a potential claim. The correct answer reflects the principle that insurable interest must exist at the time of loss for property insurance.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘insurable interest’ and when it is required in insurance contracts, as per Hong Kong insurance regulations. Insurable interest is a fundamental principle that an insured must have a financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. While it’s generally required at the inception of the policy, its necessity can vary depending on the type of insurance. For instance, in life insurance, it’s typically required at inception, but for property insurance, it must exist at the time of loss. The question probes this nuance by presenting a scenario where an individual insures a property they no longer have a financial connection to at the time of a potential claim. The correct answer reflects the principle that insurable interest must exist at the time of loss for property insurance.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insured individual filed a claim under their travel insurance policy for damage sustained to an antique pocket watch that was in their checked luggage. The policy’s Baggage and Personal Effects section covers loss or damage to personal belongings during the insured trip, subject to specific exclusions. Which of the following would most accurately reflect the insurer’s likely position regarding this claim, considering the policy’s typical exclusions?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person’s personal effects are damaged during a trip. The insurance policy’s Baggage and Personal Effects section is designed to provide indemnity for such losses. However, the policy explicitly excludes certain items, including foodstuffs, animals, plants, antiques, jewellery, mobile phones, spectacles, consumables, money, and documents. In this case, the insured’s antique pocket watch falls under the category of ‘antiques’ and potentially ‘jewellery’, both of which are listed as exclusions. Therefore, the insurer is justified in denying the claim based on these policy exclusions, as the loss is not covered under the terms of the policy.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured person’s personal effects are damaged during a trip. The insurance policy’s Baggage and Personal Effects section is designed to provide indemnity for such losses. However, the policy explicitly excludes certain items, including foodstuffs, animals, plants, antiques, jewellery, mobile phones, spectacles, consumables, money, and documents. In this case, the insured’s antique pocket watch falls under the category of ‘antiques’ and potentially ‘jewellery’, both of which are listed as exclusions. Therefore, the insurer is justified in denying the claim based on these policy exclusions, as the loss is not covered under the terms of the policy.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance underwriter is examining a proposed policy for a creditor who has a mortgage on a debtor’s commercial property. The creditor seeks to insure the property against fire damage. Which of the following relationships would most strongly support the existence of insurable interest for the creditor in this scenario, as per the principles of insurance?
Correct
Insurable interest is a fundamental principle in insurance, requiring the policyholder to have a legitimate financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. This prevents individuals from profiting from the misfortune of others or engaging in speculative gambling. The scenario describes a situation where a creditor has a financial interest in a debtor’s property due to a mortgage. This legally recognized relationship, where the creditor would suffer a financial loss if the property is damaged or destroyed, establishes insurable interest. Without this interest, the insurance contract would be void. The other options describe relationships that do not inherently grant insurable interest in the debtor’s property. A business partner might have a financial interest in the business, but not necessarily in the personal property of a debtor unless specifically linked through a legal agreement like a mortgage. A casual acquaintance or a distant relative typically lacks the direct financial or legal connection required. Therefore, the creditor with a mortgage is the only party with a clear insurable interest in the debtor’s property.
Incorrect
Insurable interest is a fundamental principle in insurance, requiring the policyholder to have a legitimate financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. This prevents individuals from profiting from the misfortune of others or engaging in speculative gambling. The scenario describes a situation where a creditor has a financial interest in a debtor’s property due to a mortgage. This legally recognized relationship, where the creditor would suffer a financial loss if the property is damaged or destroyed, establishes insurable interest. Without this interest, the insurance contract would be void. The other options describe relationships that do not inherently grant insurable interest in the debtor’s property. A business partner might have a financial interest in the business, but not necessarily in the personal property of a debtor unless specifically linked through a legal agreement like a mortgage. A casual acquaintance or a distant relative typically lacks the direct financial or legal connection required. Therefore, the creditor with a mortgage is the only party with a clear insurable interest in the debtor’s property.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
An insurance company has collected customer data solely for the purpose of administering their insurance policies. The company now intends to share this data with a third-party financial services provider to market new investment products to these customers. Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), what is the primary legal consideration for the insurance company before proceeding with this data sharing?
Correct
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, an insurance company wishes to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without this consent, such usage would contravene Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t permit unauthorized use. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data policies, not the permissible uses of data. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the purpose limitation for data usage.
Incorrect
Principle 3 of the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) mandates that personal data should only be used for the purposes for which it was collected, or a directly related purpose, unless the data subject provides consent. In this scenario, an insurance company wishes to use customer data collected for policy administration to market unrelated financial products. This constitutes a new purpose for which explicit consent from the data subjects is required. Without this consent, such usage would contravene Principle 3. Option B is incorrect because while Principle 4 addresses data security, it doesn’t permit unauthorized use. Option C is incorrect as Principle 5 relates to transparency about data policies, not the permissible uses of data. Option D is incorrect because Principle 6 concerns access and correction rights, not the purpose limitation for data usage.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an individual who successfully passed all required papers of the Insurance Intermediaries Qualifying Examination (IIQE) five years ago, but has not been actively engaged in the insurance industry in Hong Kong during that entire period, is now seeking to re-enter the field. According to the regulations governing registered persons, what is the most likely consequence for this individual’s IIQE qualifications?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates that a Registered Person’s qualification for a passed IIQE paper becomes invalid if they do not engage in insurance-related work in Hong Kong for two consecutive years after passing the examination. This rule is designed to ensure that intermediaries maintain current knowledge and practical experience in the insurance sector. Therefore, if an individual passes the IIQE but then ceases to work in the industry for two years, they would need to retake the relevant examination papers to be considered qualified again.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates that a Registered Person’s qualification for a passed IIQE paper becomes invalid if they do not engage in insurance-related work in Hong Kong for two consecutive years after passing the examination. This rule is designed to ensure that intermediaries maintain current knowledge and practical experience in the insurance sector. Therefore, if an individual passes the IIQE but then ceases to work in the industry for two years, they would need to retake the relevant examination papers to be considered qualified again.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a client enters into a contract with a company. The client has been dealing with a specific employee of the company for several months. This employee has consistently negotiated terms, discussed policy details, and even signed preliminary agreements on behalf of the company, all with the knowledge and implicit approval of senior management. Although the employee’s actual authority is limited to providing quotes, the client reasonably believes, based on the employee’s consistent actions and the company’s lack of objection, that the employee is authorized to finalize and sign such contracts. If the company later disputes the validity of the contract based on the employee exceeding their actual authority, which legal principle would most likely bind the company to the agreement?
Correct
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if that authority was not explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority whatsoever. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the employee to negotiate terms and sign contracts, coupled with the employee’s continued representation of this authority, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the employee possesses the necessary power to bind the company. Therefore, the company would be bound by the contract due to the apparent authority of its employee.
Incorrect
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if that authority was not explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority whatsoever. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the employee to negotiate terms and sign contracts, coupled with the employee’s continued representation of this authority, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the employee possesses the necessary power to bind the company. Therefore, the company would be bound by the contract due to the apparent authority of its employee.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policyholder was hospitalized following a fracture. After initial treatment and surgery at a primary hospital, they were transferred to a specialized rehabilitation center for intensive physiotherapy and occupational therapy, as advised by their attending physician. The policy provides a daily hospital cash allowance for each day of confinement. Based on typical policy wording and regulatory interpretations concerning hospital benefits, for which period would the insurer likely deny the cash allowance claim?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of exclusions within hospital benefit cover, specifically concerning rehabilitation. Case 23 highlights that confinement for rehabilitation purposes is typically excluded from hospital cash benefits, even if recommended by a doctor. The insured’s stay at the MacLehose Medical Rehabilitation Centre was for active training and physiotherapy, which falls under the definition of rehabilitation, and therefore the insurer was justified in denying the claim for that period.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of exclusions within hospital benefit cover, specifically concerning rehabilitation. Case 23 highlights that confinement for rehabilitation purposes is typically excluded from hospital cash benefits, even if recommended by a doctor. The insured’s stay at the MacLehose Medical Rehabilitation Centre was for active training and physiotherapy, which falls under the definition of rehabilitation, and therefore the insurer was justified in denying the claim for that period.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an applicant for registration as an insurance agent presents a certificate showing they passed the relevant IIQE paper five years ago. However, their employment history indicates they were not actively engaged in any insurance-related work in Hong Kong for the past three years immediately following their examination success. According to the Insurance Authority’s regulations, what is the status of their IIQE qualification for registration purposes?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates that a Registered Person’s qualification for a specific paper of the Insurance Intermediaries Qualifying Examination (IIQE) becomes void if they do not engage in insurance-related work in Hong Kong for two consecutive years after passing that paper. This rule is designed to ensure that intermediaries maintain current knowledge and practical engagement in the industry. Therefore, if an individual passed the IIQE but then ceased all insurance-related work for two years, their qualification for that specific paper would be nullified, requiring them to retake it to be considered qualified for that line of business.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates that a Registered Person’s qualification for a specific paper of the Insurance Intermediaries Qualifying Examination (IIQE) becomes void if they do not engage in insurance-related work in Hong Kong for two consecutive years after passing that paper. This rule is designed to ensure that intermediaries maintain current knowledge and practical engagement in the industry. Therefore, if an individual passed the IIQE but then ceased all insurance-related work for two years, their qualification for that specific paper would be nullified, requiring them to retake it to be considered qualified for that line of business.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy, an insured experienced the loss of a digital camera and its associated memory card. The policy contained a clause stipulating that ‘camera body, lenses and accessories will be treated as a set’ for the application of an article limit of HK$3,000. The insured argued that since the camera and memory card were purchased on separate invoices, they should not be considered a set. How should the insurer interpret the ‘set’ provision in relation to the memory card?
Correct
The policy explicitly states that ‘camera body, lenses and accessories will be treated as a set’ for the purpose of the article limit. In Case 30, the insurer correctly identified the memory card as an accessory to the digital camera because it could not be used independently of the camera, and the camera could not function without it. Therefore, the HK$3,000 article limit applied to the combined value of the camera and the memory card, not to each item individually.
Incorrect
The policy explicitly states that ‘camera body, lenses and accessories will be treated as a set’ for the purpose of the article limit. In Case 30, the insurer correctly identified the memory card as an accessory to the digital camera because it could not be used independently of the camera, and the camera could not function without it. Therefore, the HK$3,000 article limit applied to the combined value of the camera and the memory card, not to each item individually.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an aspiring insurance agent has completed all necessary training and submitted their application for registration. They are awaiting official confirmation from the IARB. According to the relevant guidelines, what action must this individual strictly avoid before receiving the written Notice of Confirmation of Registration?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must not act or present themselves as insurance agents for a Principal before receiving official written confirmation of their registration from the IARB. This confirmation is typically provided via a Notice of Confirmation of Registration. Acting as an agent without this formal registration can lead to legal consequences, including potential criminal prosecution under Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance for holding oneself out as a registered agent prematurely. Therefore, an agent must wait for this official notification before commencing any agency business.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must not act or present themselves as insurance agents for a Principal before receiving official written confirmation of their registration from the IARB. This confirmation is typically provided via a Notice of Confirmation of Registration. Acting as an agent without this formal registration can lead to legal consequences, including potential criminal prosecution under Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance for holding oneself out as a registered agent prematurely. Therefore, an agent must wait for this official notification before commencing any agency business.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During a review of a travel insurance claim for hospital cash benefits, the Complaints Panel is assessing whether the insured adequately disclosed pre-existing medical conditions. The insured argues that certain past ailments were minor and forgotten due to a lack of recent symptoms. The insurer, however, points to a history of treatments for significant conditions that were not disclosed. Under which legal standard would the Complaints Panel typically determine if the insured possessed knowledge of these conditions at the time of application?
Correct
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This standard means that the panel will find a fact to be true if it is more likely than not to be true, based on the evidence presented. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about previous ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. However, the insurer’s investigation revealed a long history of treatments for serious conditions. While the panel acknowledged the insured’s argument about the minor nature of some ailments, the overall history of undisclosed conditions was deemed significant enough to warrant a review of the insurer’s decision. The panel’s decision to award some benefit, rather than fully repudiating the policy, suggests a nuanced application of the disclosure duty, considering the severity and recency of the undisclosed conditions in relation to the claim made. The key takeaway is that the ‘balance of probabilities’ is the benchmark for establishing the insured’s knowledge and the materiality of non-disclosed facts.
Incorrect
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This standard means that the panel will find a fact to be true if it is more likely than not to be true, based on the evidence presented. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about previous ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. However, the insurer’s investigation revealed a long history of treatments for serious conditions. While the panel acknowledged the insured’s argument about the minor nature of some ailments, the overall history of undisclosed conditions was deemed significant enough to warrant a review of the insurer’s decision. The panel’s decision to award some benefit, rather than fully repudiating the policy, suggests a nuanced application of the disclosure duty, considering the severity and recency of the undisclosed conditions in relation to the claim made. The key takeaway is that the ‘balance of probabilities’ is the benchmark for establishing the insured’s knowledge and the materiality of non-disclosed facts.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a company’s purchasing department has an employee who, for several years, has been consistently allowed by management to negotiate terms and sign purchase orders with a particular supplier, even though their actual delegated authority was limited to smaller transactions. The supplier, unaware of these internal limitations, enters into a significant agreement with this employee. Under the principles of agency law relevant to the insurance industry, what is the most likely legal basis for holding the company bound by this agreement?
Correct
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on their behalf, even if that authority hasn’t been explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority at all. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the employee to negotiate terms and sign agreements, without explicitly revoking this perceived power, creates an appearance of authority in the eyes of the supplier. Therefore, the principal is bound by the agreement because the supplier reasonably relied on this apparent authority.
Incorrect
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on their behalf, even if that authority hasn’t been explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority at all. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the employee to negotiate terms and sign agreements, without explicitly revoking this perceived power, creates an appearance of authority in the eyes of the supplier. Therefore, the principal is bound by the agreement because the supplier reasonably relied on this apparent authority.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
During a comprehensive review of the structure of Hong Kong’s insurance market as of the end of 2013, an analyst noted the different categories of authorized insurers. Which category, defined by its dual capacity to underwrite both life and non-life risks, comprised a total of 19 entities, with 10 being locally incorporated?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the breakdown of authorized insurers in Hong Kong as of December 31, 2013, as per the provided text. The text explicitly states that there were 19 composite insurers, which are those carrying on both long-term and general business. The breakdown of these 19 includes 10 incorporated in Hong Kong and 9 from other jurisdictions. Therefore, the number of composite insurers is 19.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the breakdown of authorized insurers in Hong Kong as of December 31, 2013, as per the provided text. The text explicitly states that there were 19 composite insurers, which are those carrying on both long-term and general business. The breakdown of these 19 includes 10 incorporated in Hong Kong and 9 from other jurisdictions. Therefore, the number of composite insurers is 19.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance claim, an insurer assessed a situation where the insured cancelled their trip due to a family member’s illness. The policy included a clause excluding losses from pre-existing conditions known at the time of certificate issuance that would prompt a reasonable insured to cancel. Although the family member had a chronic illness, the insurer determined that the illness had not reached a stage prior to the trip’s commencement that would have caused a reasonable person to cancel. The cancellation was triggered by a sudden deterioration of the family member’s condition during routine treatment, a development not anticipated at the policy’s inception. Based on the insurer’s interpretation of the ‘pre-existing conditions’ proviso, what was the primary reason for reconsidering and ultimately admitting the claim?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the insurer’s interpretation of ‘pre-existing conditions’ in the context of the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover. The policy proviso stipulated that losses should not arise from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance that would prompt a reasonable insured to cancel. In this case, while the father had a chronic renal condition, the insurer’s investigation revealed that this condition, prior to April 4th, did not necessitate cancellation. It was the subsequent deterioration during treatment on April 4th that presented a new circumstance, not the underlying chronic disease itself, which would have prompted a reasonable person to cancel. Therefore, the insurer accepted the claim because the specific circumstances leading to the cancellation (the father’s acute deterioration) were not known to exist at the policy’s inception in a way that would have caused a reasonable person to cancel.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the insurer’s interpretation of ‘pre-existing conditions’ in the context of the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover. The policy proviso stipulated that losses should not arise from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance that would prompt a reasonable insured to cancel. In this case, while the father had a chronic renal condition, the insurer’s investigation revealed that this condition, prior to April 4th, did not necessitate cancellation. It was the subsequent deterioration during treatment on April 4th that presented a new circumstance, not the underlying chronic disease itself, which would have prompted a reasonable person to cancel. Therefore, the insurer accepted the claim because the specific circumstances leading to the cancellation (the father’s acute deterioration) were not known to exist at the policy’s inception in a way that would have caused a reasonable person to cancel.