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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a travel insurance policy’s baggage and personal effects section is being examined. An insured reported damage to a glass souvenir purchased abroad, which was discovered upon arrival in Hong Kong. The insurer declined the claim, citing a clause that excludes coverage for items deemed fragile. Based on typical interpretations within the insurance industry, how would the insurer likely categorize the damaged souvenir?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insured’s glass ornament was damaged during transit. The insurer denied the claim based on an exclusion for ‘fragile articles’. Case 28 explicitly states that insurers typically classify glass items as fragile for the purpose of such exclusions. Therefore, the insurer’s denial is consistent with the policy’s terms and common industry practice regarding fragile items.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insured’s glass ornament was damaged during transit. The insurer denied the claim based on an exclusion for ‘fragile articles’. Case 28 explicitly states that insurers typically classify glass items as fragile for the purpose of such exclusions. Therefore, the insurer’s denial is consistent with the policy’s terms and common industry practice regarding fragile items.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a property insurance claim arises where a valuable antique vase was damaged. The insurer, adhering to the principle of indemnity, decides to source an identical, brand-new vase to replace the damaged one. Under which method of providing indemnity does this action primarily fall?
Correct
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is ‘reinstatement,’ which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement of the damaged parts or the entire item. Therefore, if an insurer chooses to replace a damaged item with a new one, this action falls under the broader concept of reinstatement as a method of providing indemnity, ensuring the insured is put back into a similar state as before the loss.
Incorrect
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is ‘reinstatement,’ which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement of the damaged parts or the entire item. Therefore, if an insurer chooses to replace a damaged item with a new one, this action falls under the broader concept of reinstatement as a method of providing indemnity, ensuring the insured is put back into a similar state as before the loss.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy following a claim, an insured person who curtailed their trip due to a traffic accident in Singapore sought reimbursement for an executive class air ticket for their return journey. They argued that an economy class ticket was only available on a later flight, approximately one hour after the executive class option. The insurer, however, limited the reimbursement to the economy class fare, citing policy terms that specify indemnification for additional public transportation expenses based on economy class fares for trip curtailment and noting that an upgrade was not medically necessitated given the short delay for the economy class flight. Which of the following best explains the insurer’s position?
Correct
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is normally expected to travel on economy class tickets in such situations. Therefore, the insurer is correct in limiting the reimbursement to the economy class fare.
Incorrect
The policy explicitly states that the insurance indemnifies additional public transportation expenses returning to the Place of Origin based on economy class fare. The insured’s medical condition, while a factor in the curtailment, did not necessitate an upgrade to executive class when an economy class option was available only an hour later. The insurer’s stance aligns with the policy’s provision for economy class fares for curtailment expenses, as the insured is normally expected to travel on economy class tickets in such situations. Therefore, the insurer is correct in limiting the reimbursement to the economy class fare.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insured individual submitted a claim for chiropractic treatment under their travel insurance policy. The insurer rejected the claim, citing that the chiropractor did not meet the policy’s defined criteria for a ‘Registered Medical Practitioner.’ This decision was upheld by the Complaints Panel. Which of the following best explains the insurer’s position, considering the principles of insurance contract law relevant to the IIQE syllabus?
Correct
The scenario highlights the importance of precise policy definitions in insurance. The policy explicitly defines ‘Registered Medical Practitioner’ for the purpose of medical expense coverage. Since a chiropractor, in this specific context, did not meet the policy’s definition of a ‘Registered Medical Practitioner,’ the insurer was not obligated to cover the charges. This aligns with the principle that insurance coverage is strictly bound by the terms and conditions stipulated in the policy document, including specific definitions of covered services and providers.
Incorrect
The scenario highlights the importance of precise policy definitions in insurance. The policy explicitly defines ‘Registered Medical Practitioner’ for the purpose of medical expense coverage. Since a chiropractor, in this specific context, did not meet the policy’s definition of a ‘Registered Medical Practitioner,’ the insurer was not obligated to cover the charges. This aligns with the principle that insurance coverage is strictly bound by the terms and conditions stipulated in the policy document, including specific definitions of covered services and providers.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
When a data user finds it impractical to establish a formal contractual relationship with a data processor to safeguard entrusted personal data, the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) provides an alternative pathway for demonstrating compliance. What is the term used in the Ordinance to describe these non-contractual methods of oversight and auditing?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for flexibility in ensuring data protection when a direct contractual agreement with a data processor is not feasible. Section 6(6)(ii) of the PDPO permits the use of ‘other means’ to achieve compliance. This refers to non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms that a data user can implement to monitor a data processor’s adherence to data protection requirements. While contracts are the preferred method, these alternative measures serve as a valid substitute when direct contracting is not possible, demonstrating a commitment to data security and privacy.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for flexibility in ensuring data protection when a direct contractual agreement with a data processor is not feasible. Section 6(6)(ii) of the PDPO permits the use of ‘other means’ to achieve compliance. This refers to non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms that a data user can implement to monitor a data processor’s adherence to data protection requirements. While contracts are the preferred method, these alternative measures serve as a valid substitute when direct contracting is not possible, demonstrating a commitment to data security and privacy.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, the Insurance Authority (IA) identified a registered insurance agent who failed to diligently investigate a customer complaint as directed. If the registered agent’s principal also fails to enforce the IA’s directive for a thorough investigation and subsequent reporting, what is the IA’s recourse according to the established procedures for determining fitness and properness?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) has the power to impose disciplinary actions on registered persons and principals if they fail to comply with the IA’s directives. This includes reporting the failure to the IA, which can then impose further disciplinary measures on the non-compliant entity. This reflects the IA’s oversight role in ensuring adherence to regulatory requirements and maintaining market integrity.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) has the power to impose disciplinary actions on registered persons and principals if they fail to comply with the IA’s directives. This includes reporting the failure to the IA, which can then impose further disciplinary measures on the non-compliant entity. This reflects the IA’s oversight role in ensuring adherence to regulatory requirements and maintaining market integrity.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a licensed travel agent, registered as a travel insurance agent, is approached by a client who is about to embark on a pre-arranged tour. The client wishes to purchase a comprehensive insurance policy for a high-value item they will be taking on the trip, which is not specifically covered by the standard travel insurance package offered. The client is willing to pay an additional premium for this specific coverage. Under the regulations governing travel insurance agents, what is the primary limitation on the agent’s ability to facilitate this transaction?
Correct
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot sell a policy that covers a specific valuable item with an ‘all risks’ clause if that policy is not intrinsically part of the travel package they arranged, even if the item is intended for use during the trip. The restriction is on the nature of the policy and its connection to the travel services arranged by the agent, not solely on the fact that it relates to travel.
Incorrect
Travel insurance agents, as defined under the Insurance Intermediaries Quality Assurance Scheme, are specifically authorized to deal with a ‘Restricted Scope Travel Business’. This scope is narrowly defined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents to include the effecting and carrying out of contracts of travel insurance that are directly tied to a tour, travel package, trip, or other travel services that the same travel agent has arranged for their clients. Crucially, this definition explicitly excludes annual travel insurance policies and any travel insurance policies for arrangements that the travel agent did not organize. Therefore, a travel insurance agent cannot sell a policy that covers a specific valuable item with an ‘all risks’ clause if that policy is not intrinsically part of the travel package they arranged, even if the item is intended for use during the trip. The restriction is on the nature of the policy and its connection to the travel services arranged by the agent, not solely on the fact that it relates to travel.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
During a busy airport transfer, an individual realized their wallet was missing from their jacket pocket. They immediately reported the incident to airport security and the local police. Later, the wallet was found by a cleaner, but the cash inside was gone. The insurance policy covers ‘personal money’ losses directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. Based on the principles outlined in the IIQE syllabus regarding personal money cover, what is the most likely outcome for the insured’s claim for the lost cash?
Correct
The Personal Money cover in the IIQE syllabus typically indemnifies for losses of specified forms of personal money (cash, banknotes, travellers’ cheques, money orders) directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was lost, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of negligence (leaving the wallet behind) might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for theft to be considered the sole cause of the loss. Therefore, the loss of money itself, even if the wallet was subsequently stolen, might not be covered if the initial loss was due to the insured’s own carelessness, as this could be seen as an indirect cause or a separate event preceding the theft.
Incorrect
The Personal Money cover in the IIQE syllabus typically indemnifies for losses of specified forms of personal money (cash, banknotes, travellers’ cheques, money orders) directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was lost, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of negligence (leaving the wallet behind) might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for theft to be considered the sole cause of the loss. Therefore, the loss of money itself, even if the wallet was subsequently stolen, might not be covered if the initial loss was due to the insured’s own carelessness, as this could be seen as an indirect cause or a separate event preceding the theft.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
When a prospective client wishes to verify the registration status of an individual claiming to be an insurance agent in Hong Kong, which body is mandated by the Insurance Authority to maintain and make publicly available the official register of insurance agents and their representatives?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for maintaining a register of insurance agents and their appointed Responsible Officers and Technical Representatives. This register, along with a sub-register, is kept in a format determined by the Insurance Authority (IA) and must be accessible for public inspection. This accessibility ensures transparency and allows the public to verify the registration status of individuals acting as insurance agents. Therefore, the IARB is the entity that maintains these public records.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for maintaining a register of insurance agents and their appointed Responsible Officers and Technical Representatives. This register, along with a sub-register, is kept in a format determined by the Insurance Authority (IA) and must be accessible for public inspection. This accessibility ensures transparency and allows the public to verify the registration status of individuals acting as insurance agents. Therefore, the IARB is the entity that maintains these public records.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
During a travel insurance policy review, an underwriter is examining a claim for medical expenses. The insured experienced a minor injury while alighting from a taxi shortly after a significant flight delay, which caused them to return home temporarily before their intended departure. The policy states that medical expenses cover is for bodily injuries or sickness contracted or sustained outside the Place of Origin during the Period of Insurance. The Place of Origin is defined as Hong Kong. The injury occurred within Hong Kong. Based on the policy wording and common interpretations in travel insurance, which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to the denial of the medical expenses claim?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the ‘Place of Origin’ clause in travel insurance, specifically concerning medical expenses. Case 20 and Case 21 highlight that an illness or injury must be contracted or sustained outside Hong Kong (the Place of Origin) for medical expenses cover to apply. While the insured in Case 20 twisted her leg within Hong Kong, the insurer correctly denied the medical expenses claim because the incident occurred within the Place of Origin, even though the policy generally commenced upon leaving home. Case 21 further clarifies that the illness must be contracted abroad, even if symptoms manifest later. Therefore, an injury sustained within Hong Kong, regardless of when symptoms appear or treatment is sought, would not be covered under the Medical Expenses Benefit Section as defined.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the ‘Place of Origin’ clause in travel insurance, specifically concerning medical expenses. Case 20 and Case 21 highlight that an illness or injury must be contracted or sustained outside Hong Kong (the Place of Origin) for medical expenses cover to apply. While the insured in Case 20 twisted her leg within Hong Kong, the insurer correctly denied the medical expenses claim because the incident occurred within the Place of Origin, even though the policy generally commenced upon leaving home. Case 21 further clarifies that the illness must be contracted abroad, even if symptoms manifest later. Therefore, an injury sustained within Hong Kong, regardless of when symptoms appear or treatment is sought, would not be covered under the Medical Expenses Benefit Section as defined.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
When considering the formation of agreements, what distinguishes a legally binding contract from a casual social arrangement, such as agreeing to meet a friend for coffee?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are generally not considered contracts because the parties do not intend for them to have legal consequences. If one party cancels, the other cannot sue for breach of contract. This distinguishes a contract from a casual social promise. Therefore, the core characteristic that elevates an agreement to a contract is its legal enforceability.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are generally not considered contracts because the parties do not intend for them to have legal consequences. If one party cancels, the other cannot sue for breach of contract. This distinguishes a contract from a casual social promise. Therefore, the core characteristic that elevates an agreement to a contract is its legal enforceability.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent’s principal appointments were examined. The agent is appointed by a composite insurer for both its general and long-term business operations. Additionally, the agent represents a separate insurer that exclusively offers general insurance products and another separate insurer that exclusively offers long-term insurance products. Under the relevant regulations, what is the maximum number of principals this agent is currently representing?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically concerning composite insurers. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business is acting for two principals. If this agent also represents a single general business insurer and a single long-term business insurer, they would be representing a total of four principals (composite insurer’s general + composite insurer’s long-term + single general insurer + single long-term insurer), which is the maximum allowed. Representing a composite insurer for only general business would count as one principal, allowing for three more. The scenario describes an agent representing a composite insurer for both types of business, plus two additional separate insurers, one for general and one for long-term business. This totals four principals (composite general, composite long-term, separate general, separate long-term), which is the maximum permitted. The question asks about the maximum number of principals an agent can represent, and the scenario describes a situation that reaches this limit.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically concerning composite insurers. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business is acting for two principals. If this agent also represents a single general business insurer and a single long-term business insurer, they would be representing a total of four principals (composite insurer’s general + composite insurer’s long-term + single general insurer + single long-term insurer), which is the maximum allowed. Representing a composite insurer for only general business would count as one principal, allowing for three more. The scenario describes an agent representing a composite insurer for both types of business, plus two additional separate insurers, one for general and one for long-term business. This totals four principals (composite general, composite long-term, separate general, separate long-term), which is the maximum permitted. The question asks about the maximum number of principals an agent can represent, and the scenario describes a situation that reaches this limit.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurer discovers that a significant number of customer complaints are being investigated by the same individuals who handled the initial policy sales. According to the HKFI’s ‘Guidelines on Complaint Handling,’ what is the primary procedural flaw in this scenario?
Correct
The HKFI’s ‘Guidelines on Complaint Handling’ emphasize a structured approach to managing customer grievances. A key principle is ensuring that the investigation process is impartial. This means that an employee who was directly involved in the situation that led to the complaint should not be the one to investigate it. This separation of duties is crucial for maintaining fairness and objectivity in the complaint resolution process, thereby building trust with the policyholder.
Incorrect
The HKFI’s ‘Guidelines on Complaint Handling’ emphasize a structured approach to managing customer grievances. A key principle is ensuring that the investigation process is impartial. This means that an employee who was directly involved in the situation that led to the complaint should not be the one to investigate it. This separation of duties is crucial for maintaining fairness and objectivity in the complaint resolution process, thereby building trust with the policyholder.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
During a voyage, a vessel carrying insured cargo experiences a series of events initiated by the master’s negligence. This negligence leads to a collision, which in turn causes a fire. The fire then triggers an explosion, resulting in leaks through which seawater enters, damaging the cargo. If the cargo policies cover perils such as collision, fire, and explosion, but not negligence, how would the damage caused by seawater be treated under the policy that covers fire?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the proximate cause principle in insurance, specifically how an uninsured peril can lead to a loss covered by an insured peril. The scenario describes a chain of events initiated by negligence (uninsured peril) leading to a collision, fire, explosion, and finally water damage. The key concept is that even if the ultimate cause is an uninsured peril, if an insured peril (like fire or explosion) is a direct and natural consequence in the chain of causation, the loss stemming from that insured peril can be covered. The illustration in the provided text explicitly states that water damage, resulting from leaks caused by an explosion, which was caused by fire, which was caused by a collision, which was caused by negligence, is recoverable under policies covering collision, fire, and explosion, because the water damage is regarded as a result of the sole insured peril in each case, notwithstanding the uninsured peril at the beginning of the chain. Therefore, the loss from the insured peril (e.g., fire, explosion) is covered, even though it was proximately caused by an uninsured peril (negligence).
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the proximate cause principle in insurance, specifically how an uninsured peril can lead to a loss covered by an insured peril. The scenario describes a chain of events initiated by negligence (uninsured peril) leading to a collision, fire, explosion, and finally water damage. The key concept is that even if the ultimate cause is an uninsured peril, if an insured peril (like fire or explosion) is a direct and natural consequence in the chain of causation, the loss stemming from that insured peril can be covered. The illustration in the provided text explicitly states that water damage, resulting from leaks caused by an explosion, which was caused by fire, which was caused by a collision, which was caused by negligence, is recoverable under policies covering collision, fire, and explosion, because the water damage is regarded as a result of the sole insured peril in each case, notwithstanding the uninsured peril at the beginning of the chain. Therefore, the loss from the insured peril (e.g., fire, explosion) is covered, even though it was proximately caused by an uninsured peril (negligence).
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a company’s long-standing sales manager, who has consistently been permitted by the board to negotiate and finalize deals within certain parameters, enters into a significant agreement with a new supplier. Although the manager’s actual authority was limited to deals below a specific monetary threshold, the board had previously approved similar, albeit smaller, agreements negotiated by the manager without objection. The new supplier, unaware of the internal limitations, relied on the manager’s perceived authority based on past dealings and the company’s inaction. Under which legal principle would the company likely be bound by the agreement, despite the manager exceeding their explicit mandate?
Correct
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on their behalf, even if that authority was not explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority whatsoever. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the agent to negotiate terms and sign contracts, coupled with the principal’s subsequent ratification of similar past actions, creates a reasonable belief in the third party that the agent possesses the authority to bind the principal. Therefore, the principal is bound by the agent’s actions under the doctrine of apparent authority.
Incorrect
Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on their behalf, even if that authority was not explicitly granted. This is distinct from estoppel, which applies when someone is held out as an agent without any authority whatsoever. In this scenario, the principal’s consistent allowance of the agent to negotiate terms and sign contracts, coupled with the principal’s subsequent ratification of similar past actions, creates a reasonable belief in the third party that the agent possesses the authority to bind the principal. Therefore, the principal is bound by the agent’s actions under the doctrine of apparent authority.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
When examining the responsibilities of an insurance agent towards their principal, which of the following duties is typically considered to be implicitly understood or ‘treated as’ applicable, even if not explicitly detailed in every contract, reflecting the foundational nature of their fiduciary relationship?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Deemed’ or ‘Treated As’ in the context of insurance regulations, specifically concerning the duties owed by an agent to their principal. The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) and related codes of practice outline various responsibilities. While an agent has duties like obedience, care, and skill, the concept of ‘deemed’ or ‘treated as’ often applies to situations where certain actions or statuses are legally presumed or treated as if they were explicitly stated or occurred, even if not directly proven. In the context of agent-principal relationships, the duties of obedience to legitimate orders, exercising due care and skill, and acting in the principal’s best interest are fundamental. These are often considered inherent or ‘deemed’ to apply unless explicitly excluded or modified by agreement, reflecting the fiduciary nature of the relationship. The other options represent different aspects of insurance or legal concepts: ‘Damages’ relate to compensation for harm, ‘Fidelity Guarantee’ is a type of insurance against dishonesty, and ‘Equal Opportunity’ pertains to anti-discrimination legislation.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Deemed’ or ‘Treated As’ in the context of insurance regulations, specifically concerning the duties owed by an agent to their principal. The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) and related codes of practice outline various responsibilities. While an agent has duties like obedience, care, and skill, the concept of ‘deemed’ or ‘treated as’ often applies to situations where certain actions or statuses are legally presumed or treated as if they were explicitly stated or occurred, even if not directly proven. In the context of agent-principal relationships, the duties of obedience to legitimate orders, exercising due care and skill, and acting in the principal’s best interest are fundamental. These are often considered inherent or ‘deemed’ to apply unless explicitly excluded or modified by agreement, reflecting the fiduciary nature of the relationship. The other options represent different aspects of insurance or legal concepts: ‘Damages’ relate to compensation for harm, ‘Fidelity Guarantee’ is a type of insurance against dishonesty, and ‘Equal Opportunity’ pertains to anti-discrimination legislation.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a review of a travel insurance claim, the Complaints Panel considered whether an insured’s failure to disclose a history of stomach-related ailments, including enteritis and TB, for which they had received treatment over two decades, constituted material non-disclosure. The insured argued they had forgotten these past issues due to their minor nature and absence of symptoms for the last ten years. The insurer had rejected the claim based on this non-disclosure. Which standard of proof would the Complaints Panel most likely apply when assessing the insured’s knowledge of these pre-existing conditions?
Correct
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This standard means that the panel will find a fact to be true if it is more likely than not to be true, based on the evidence presented. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about previous ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. However, the insurer’s investigation revealed a long history of treatments for serious conditions. The panel’s decision to award some benefits, despite the non-disclosure, suggests they weighed the severity and recency of the undisclosed conditions against the insured’s claims of forgetfulness and the minor nature of the past ailments, ultimately finding the insurer’s complete repudiation disproportionate to the breach, if any, of the duty of disclosure.
Incorrect
The Complaints Panel applies the ‘balance of probabilities’ standard of proof in determining whether an insured person knew of a pre-existing medical condition when applying for insurance. This standard means that the panel will find a fact to be true if it is more likely than not to be true, based on the evidence presented. In Case 16, the insured claimed to have forgotten about previous ailments due to their minor nature and lack of recent symptoms. However, the insurer’s investigation revealed a long history of treatments for serious conditions. The panel’s decision to award some benefits, despite the non-disclosure, suggests they weighed the severity and recency of the undisclosed conditions against the insured’s claims of forgetfulness and the minor nature of the past ailments, ultimately finding the insurer’s complete repudiation disproportionate to the breach, if any, of the duty of disclosure.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
When dealing with a complex system that shows occasional inconsistencies in its operational framework, which legislative instrument serves as the foundational legal basis for the prudential supervision and regulation of the insurance sector in Hong Kong, encompassing both insurers and intermediaries, and was significantly updated to establish an independent statutory body for oversight?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) is the primary legislation governing the prudential supervision of the insurance industry in Hong Kong. It outlines the requirements for insurers and intermediaries, including authorization, capital requirements, and conduct. The establishment of the Insurance Authority (IA) as an independent statutory body, replacing the Office of the Commissioner of Insurance (OCI) following the Insurance Companies (Amendment) Ordinance 2015, signifies a modernization of the regulatory framework. The IA’s mandate includes protecting policyholders, promoting industry stability, and aligning Hong Kong with international best practices. Therefore, the Insurance Ordinance is the foundational legal instrument for this regulatory structure.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) is the primary legislation governing the prudential supervision of the insurance industry in Hong Kong. It outlines the requirements for insurers and intermediaries, including authorization, capital requirements, and conduct. The establishment of the Insurance Authority (IA) as an independent statutory body, replacing the Office of the Commissioner of Insurance (OCI) following the Insurance Companies (Amendment) Ordinance 2015, signifies a modernization of the regulatory framework. The IA’s mandate includes protecting policyholders, promoting industry stability, and aligning Hong Kong with international best practices. Therefore, the Insurance Ordinance is the foundational legal instrument for this regulatory structure.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent registered to sell specified investment products is assessed for their ongoing professional development. If this agent has successfully completed all mandated CPD hours for the current assessment year, and meets all other regulatory fitness and properness standards, what is the primary implication for their registration status for the subsequent 12-month period, as per the guidelines administered by the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB)?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP registered to engage in the sale of specified investment products (RSTB) who has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year is considered qualified to maintain their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field, particularly concerning investment products.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP registered to engage in the sale of specified investment products (RSTB) who has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year is considered qualified to maintain their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field, particularly concerning investment products.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is currently registered to represent a composite insurer for both its general insurance and long-term insurance business. This composite insurer counts as two principals for the agent. The agent now wishes to become registered to represent a second insurer, which exclusively conducts long-term insurance business. Under the relevant regulations for the representation of principals by insurance agents, how many principals would this agent be representing in total after this new appointment?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically concerning composite insurers. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business is acting for two principals. The regulation states an agent can represent a maximum of four principals, with no more than two being long-term insurers. Representing a composite insurer for both business types uses up two of the four principal slots, leaving two more available. The scenario describes an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business, which counts as two principals. The agent then wishes to represent another insurer that conducts only long-term business. This would be their third principal. Since the composite insurer counts as two principals, and the new insurer is a long-term business provider, this would be the second long-term principal. The regulation allows for a maximum of two long-term principals. Therefore, the agent can represent this additional long-term insurer.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically concerning composite insurers. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business is acting for two principals. The regulation states an agent can represent a maximum of four principals, with no more than two being long-term insurers. Representing a composite insurer for both business types uses up two of the four principal slots, leaving two more available. The scenario describes an agent representing a composite insurer for both general and long-term business, which counts as two principals. The agent then wishes to represent another insurer that conducts only long-term business. This would be their third principal. Since the composite insurer counts as two principals, and the new insurer is a long-term business provider, this would be the second long-term principal. The regulation allows for a maximum of two long-term principals. Therefore, the agent can represent this additional long-term insurer.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance claim, an insured cancelled their trip due to the serious illness of their father. The policy included a ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover with a proviso excluding losses arising from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance that would reasonably lead to cancellation. The father had a chronic renal condition requiring regular dialysis. However, the insurer ultimately accepted the claim after determining that the routine dialysis treatment would not have deterred the insured from travelling, and it was only the subsequent deterioration of the father’s condition during a scheduled dialysis session that prompted the cancellation. Which principle best explains the insurer’s decision to admit the claim?
Correct
The core of this question lies in understanding the insurer’s interpretation of ‘pre-existing conditions’ in the context of the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover. The policy proviso stipulated that losses should not arise from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance that would prompt a reasonable insured to cancel. In this case, while the father had a chronic renal condition requiring regular dialysis, the insurer’s investigation revealed that this routine treatment would not have caused the insured to cancel the trip. It was the subsequent deterioration of the father’s condition during dialysis that led to the cancellation. Therefore, the insurer accepted that the specific circumstances prompting the cancellation were not known to exist at the time of policy issuance, making the claim valid under the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in understanding the insurer’s interpretation of ‘pre-existing conditions’ in the context of the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover. The policy proviso stipulated that losses should not arise from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance that would prompt a reasonable insured to cancel. In this case, while the father had a chronic renal condition requiring regular dialysis, the insurer’s investigation revealed that this routine treatment would not have caused the insured to cancel the trip. It was the subsequent deterioration of the father’s condition during dialysis that led to the cancellation. Therefore, the insurer accepted that the specific circumstances prompting the cancellation were not known to exist at the time of policy issuance, making the claim valid under the ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ cover.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
When a prospective client inquires about the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insurance agents and handling complaints related to their conduct in Hong Kong, which organization, established under the auspices of a broader industry association, would be the most accurate referral?
Correct
The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers (HKFI) is the primary industry body representing authorized insurers in Hong Kong. Its core mission includes promoting insurance to the public and fostering consumer confidence in the insurance sector. The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is a subsidiary of the HKFI, specifically tasked with registering insurance agents and managing complaints against them, as outlined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents. The Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau and Panel are distinct entities focused on resolving disputes related to insurance claims, particularly for personal insurance policies.
Incorrect
The Hong Kong Federation of Insurers (HKFI) is the primary industry body representing authorized insurers in Hong Kong. Its core mission includes promoting insurance to the public and fostering consumer confidence in the insurance sector. The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is a subsidiary of the HKFI, specifically tasked with registering insurance agents and managing complaints against them, as outlined in the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents. The Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau and Panel are distinct entities focused on resolving disputes related to insurance claims, particularly for personal insurance policies.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insured person’s travel insurance policy stipulated that medical expense coverage was contingent upon bodily injuries or sickness being contracted or sustained outside the ‘Place of Origin’ (defined as Hong Kong). The insured’s departure was significantly delayed, and during this extended period, they returned home and sustained a leg injury while alighting from a taxi. Although the policy generally commenced coverage upon the insured leaving their residence, the insurer paid a travel delay benefit but declined the claim for medical expenses. Based on the policy’s specific wording for medical expenses, what is the most accurate justification for the insurer’s denial of the medical expenses claim?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the ‘Place of Origin’ clause in travel insurance, specifically concerning medical expenses. Case 20 and Case 22 highlight that for medical expenses to be covered, the injury or sickness must be contracted or sustained outside Hong Kong (the Place of Origin). In Case 20, the insured twisted her leg within Hong Kong while returning home, even though the policy commenced upon leaving her residence. The insurer correctly denied the medical expenses claim because the injury occurred within the Place of Origin, despite the policy’s general commencement clause. The Travel Delay Benefit was payable as that section had different terms. Therefore, the insurer’s denial of the medical expenses claim based on the injury occurring within Hong Kong is consistent with the policy’s specific wording for that benefit.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the ‘Place of Origin’ clause in travel insurance, specifically concerning medical expenses. Case 20 and Case 22 highlight that for medical expenses to be covered, the injury or sickness must be contracted or sustained outside Hong Kong (the Place of Origin). In Case 20, the insured twisted her leg within Hong Kong while returning home, even though the policy commenced upon leaving her residence. The insurer correctly denied the medical expenses claim because the injury occurred within the Place of Origin, despite the policy’s general commencement clause. The Travel Delay Benefit was payable as that section had different terms. Therefore, the insurer’s denial of the medical expenses claim based on the injury occurring within Hong Kong is consistent with the policy’s specific wording for that benefit.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a policyholder discovers that their antique vase, insured for HK$500,000 as part of their household contents, was damaged. The repair costs amount to HK$75,000. However, the insurance policy explicitly states a ‘single article limit’ of HK$50,000 for any one item. What is the maximum amount the insurer is liable to pay for the damage to the vase?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where a policyholder has insured their valuable antique vase for HK$500,000 within a broader household contents policy. However, the policy has a specific ‘single article limit’ of HK$50,000 for any one item. When the vase is damaged, the repair cost is HK$75,000. According to the terms of the policy, the insurer’s liability for this single article is capped at the single article limit. Therefore, the maximum amount the insurer will pay is HK$50,000, even though the repair cost and the item’s insured value are higher. This demonstrates the application of a single article limit, which restricts the payout for a high-value individual item within a general contents policy.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where a policyholder has insured their valuable antique vase for HK$500,000 within a broader household contents policy. However, the policy has a specific ‘single article limit’ of HK$50,000 for any one item. When the vase is damaged, the repair cost is HK$75,000. According to the terms of the policy, the insurer’s liability for this single article is capped at the single article limit. Therefore, the maximum amount the insurer will pay is HK$50,000, even though the repair cost and the item’s insured value are higher. This demonstrates the application of a single article limit, which restricts the payout for a high-value individual item within a general contents policy.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a situation arises where an individual, acting on behalf of a company without explicit prior authorization, secures a crucial supply contract. Subsequently, the company’s senior management reviews the contract and, finding it beneficial, formally approves it. Under the law of agency, what is the most accurate description of how the agent’s authority to enter into this contract is established in this scenario?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of how an agency relationship can be established. Ratification, as described in the syllabus, is the principal’s retrospective approval of an act performed by an agent without prior authority. This means the principal, by their subsequent confirmation (whether written, verbal, or through conduct), grants authority to the agent’s action as if it had been authorized from the beginning. This is distinct from express or implied actual authority, which are granted before or at the time of the act. An agency by agreement arises from mutual consent, which may be express or implied, but doesn’t necessarily involve retrospective approval of an unauthorized act. An agency by necessity is a specific circumstance where the law implies an agency to prevent loss, which is not the scenario described.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of how an agency relationship can be established. Ratification, as described in the syllabus, is the principal’s retrospective approval of an act performed by an agent without prior authority. This means the principal, by their subsequent confirmation (whether written, verbal, or through conduct), grants authority to the agent’s action as if it had been authorized from the beginning. This is distinct from express or implied actual authority, which are granted before or at the time of the act. An agency by agreement arises from mutual consent, which may be express or implied, but doesn’t necessarily involve retrospective approval of an unauthorized act. An agency by necessity is a specific circumstance where the law implies an agency to prevent loss, which is not the scenario described.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a claims assessor is examining the conditions under which a policyholder can receive compensation. They are specifically looking for the element that, when activated by an event, directly leads to a payable claim. According to the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), what is this essential element?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental definition of an ‘insured peril’ as a cause of loss that must be present for a valid claim to arise. Option (b) describes a ‘peril’ generally, which is the cause of loss but not necessarily the insured cause. Option (c) describes ‘loss prevention,’ which is a risk management technique to reduce the frequency of losses, not a component of a claim. Option (d) describes ‘loss reduction,’ which aims to lessen the severity of losses, also distinct from the definition of an insured peril.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental definition of an ‘insured peril’ as a cause of loss that must be present for a valid claim to arise. Option (b) describes a ‘peril’ generally, which is the cause of loss but not necessarily the insured cause. Option (c) describes ‘loss prevention,’ which is a risk management technique to reduce the frequency of losses, not a component of a claim. Option (d) describes ‘loss reduction,’ which aims to lessen the severity of losses, also distinct from the definition of an insured peril.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an individual is awaiting formal confirmation of their appointment as an insurance agent. According to the guidelines concerning the effective date of registration, when is it permissible for this individual to begin conducting insurance business on behalf of their prospective Principal?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must not act or present themselves as insurance agents for a Principal until they have received written confirmation of their registration from the IARB. This confirmation is typically issued via a Notice of Confirmation of Registration. Acting as an agent before this official notification is a violation of Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance, which can lead to criminal prosecution. Therefore, an agent must wait for this formal confirmation before commencing any agency business.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must not act or present themselves as insurance agents for a Principal until they have received written confirmation of their registration from the IARB. This confirmation is typically issued via a Notice of Confirmation of Registration. Acting as an agent before this official notification is a violation of Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance, which can lead to criminal prosecution. Therefore, an agent must wait for this formal confirmation before commencing any agency business.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
When dealing with a complex system that shows occasional inconsistencies in regulatory oversight, which piece of legislation forms the bedrock for the prudential supervision of Hong Kong’s insurance sector, encompassing both insurers and intermediaries, and was significantly updated to establish an independent statutory body for its regulation?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) is the primary legislation governing the prudential supervision of the insurance industry in Hong Kong. It outlines the requirements for insurers and intermediaries, including authorization, capital requirements, and conduct of business. The establishment of the Insurance Authority (IA) as an independent statutory body, replacing the Office of the Commissioner of Insurance (OCI) following the Insurance Companies (Amendment) Ordinance 2015, signifies a modernization of the regulatory framework. The IA’s mandate includes protecting policyholders, promoting industry stability, and aligning Hong Kong with international best practices. Therefore, understanding the foundational legislation and the role of the IA is crucial for anyone operating within or interacting with the Hong Kong insurance market.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) is the primary legislation governing the prudential supervision of the insurance industry in Hong Kong. It outlines the requirements for insurers and intermediaries, including authorization, capital requirements, and conduct of business. The establishment of the Insurance Authority (IA) as an independent statutory body, replacing the Office of the Commissioner of Insurance (OCI) following the Insurance Companies (Amendment) Ordinance 2015, signifies a modernization of the regulatory framework. The IA’s mandate includes protecting policyholders, promoting industry stability, and aligning Hong Kong with international best practices. Therefore, understanding the foundational legislation and the role of the IA is crucial for anyone operating within or interacting with the Hong Kong insurance market.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
During a severe industrial accident, Mr. Chan sustained a crush injury to his dominant hand. Despite extensive surgical intervention and rehabilitation over 18 months, medical professionals have concluded that he has permanently lost the fine motor skills and grip strength necessary to perform any form of manual labour or even basic daily tasks requiring hand dexterity. He can move his fingers to some extent, but the functional impairment is total and irreversible. His personal accident policy defines ‘loss of limb’ as ‘physical separation at or above the wrist or ankle, or a permanent loss of use of the limb’. Based on this definition, would Mr. Chan’s condition likely be considered a ‘loss of limb’ under his policy?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the definition of ‘loss of limb’ under a personal accident policy, specifically focusing on the distinction between physical separation and permanent loss of use. The scenario describes a severe injury that, while not a complete physical severance, renders the limb permanently unusable for its intended function. According to typical policy definitions, permanent loss of use of a limb at or above the wrist or ankle is considered equivalent to physical loss. Therefore, the insured’s inability to perform any work due to the permanent loss of function in their hand would qualify for the benefit, assuming other policy conditions are met. Option B is incorrect because it focuses on the inability to perform the *specific* occupation rather than *any* occupation. Option C is incorrect as it implies a need for complete immobility of the entire body, which is not the definition of loss of limb. Option D is incorrect because it misinterprets ‘loss of use’ to mean only a temporary inability to use the limb.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the definition of ‘loss of limb’ under a personal accident policy, specifically focusing on the distinction between physical separation and permanent loss of use. The scenario describes a severe injury that, while not a complete physical severance, renders the limb permanently unusable for its intended function. According to typical policy definitions, permanent loss of use of a limb at or above the wrist or ankle is considered equivalent to physical loss. Therefore, the insured’s inability to perform any work due to the permanent loss of function in their hand would qualify for the benefit, assuming other policy conditions are met. Option B is incorrect because it focuses on the inability to perform the *specific* occupation rather than *any* occupation. Option C is incorrect as it implies a need for complete immobility of the entire body, which is not the definition of loss of limb. Option D is incorrect because it misinterprets ‘loss of use’ to mean only a temporary inability to use the limb.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a policyholder files a claim for a damaged antique vase insured under a property policy. The insurer determines that the vase is beyond repair and offers to replace it with a new, identical vase. The original vase, prior to the damage, had experienced significant depreciation due to its age. If the insurer wishes to strictly adhere to the principle of indemnity when providing a replacement, what adjustment must they make to the cost of the new vase?
Correct
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is reinstatement, which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement. If the insurer chooses to replace the damaged item with a new one, and the original item had depreciated, providing a brand-new replacement would exceed the principle of indemnity by giving the insured a better item than they had before the loss. Therefore, to adhere to indemnity, the insurer would typically deduct an amount equivalent to the depreciation from the cost of the new item when settling the claim.
Incorrect
The principle of indemnity aims to restore the insured to the financial position they were in immediately before the loss occurred, no more and no less. In property insurance, when a loss is settled, the insurer has several methods to provide this indemnity. One of these methods is reinstatement, which involves restoring the damaged property to its pre-loss condition. This can be achieved through repair or replacement. If the insurer chooses to replace the damaged item with a new one, and the original item had depreciated, providing a brand-new replacement would exceed the principle of indemnity by giving the insured a better item than they had before the loss. Therefore, to adhere to indemnity, the insurer would typically deduct an amount equivalent to the depreciation from the cost of the new item when settling the claim.