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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
When a small business owner in Hong Kong faces the possibility of significant financial loss due to a fire damaging their inventory, how does insurance fundamentally address this concern, aligning with its primary function as outlined in the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41)?
Correct
Insurance primarily functions as a risk transfer mechanism, allowing individuals and businesses to shift the potential financial burden of unforeseen events to an insurer in exchange for a premium. This transfer provides financial compensation to those who suffer losses, enabling businesses to recover from significant events like fires or liability claims and offering personal financial support during times of tragedy or need. While insurance has many ancillary benefits, such as employment generation and promoting economic growth, its core purpose is to mitigate the financial impact of risk for the insured.
Incorrect
Insurance primarily functions as a risk transfer mechanism, allowing individuals and businesses to shift the potential financial burden of unforeseen events to an insurer in exchange for a premium. This transfer provides financial compensation to those who suffer losses, enabling businesses to recover from significant events like fires or liability claims and offering personal financial support during times of tragedy or need. While insurance has many ancillary benefits, such as employment generation and promoting economic growth, its core purpose is to mitigate the financial impact of risk for the insured.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
During a severe industrial accident, Mr. Chan sustained extensive crush injuries to his right hand. Despite extensive medical intervention, including reconstructive surgery, his hand remains completely paralyzed and non-functional, rendering him unable to perform any tasks requiring its use. However, the hand itself was not physically severed at or above the wrist. Under a standard personal accident policy, which of the following best describes the insurer’s likely stance regarding a claim for ‘loss of limb’ benefit based on this injury?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the specific definition of ‘loss of limb’ under personal accident policies, as outlined in the IIQE syllabus. The key is that the definition requires physical separation at or above the wrist or ankle, or a permanent loss of use of the limb. While the insured’s hand is severely damaged and non-functional, it has not been physically severed at or above the wrist. Therefore, it does not meet the policy’s strict definition of ‘loss of limb’ for the purpose of this specific benefit, even though it represents a significant functional impairment.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the specific definition of ‘loss of limb’ under personal accident policies, as outlined in the IIQE syllabus. The key is that the definition requires physical separation at or above the wrist or ankle, or a permanent loss of use of the limb. While the insured’s hand is severely damaged and non-functional, it has not been physically severed at or above the wrist. Therefore, it does not meet the policy’s strict definition of ‘loss of limb’ for the purpose of this specific benefit, even though it represents a significant functional impairment.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
When a business entity is established as a limited liability company and its primary operations involve providing advice on insurance matters and facilitating the placement of insurance policies for various insurers in Hong Kong, how would this entity be classified under the relevant regulatory framework for insurance intermediaries?
Correct
An Insurance Agency, as defined by the Code of Conduct, is a person or entity that holds itself out to advise on or arrange insurance contracts in Hong Kong as an agent or subagent for one or more insurers. This definition encompasses various business structures, including sole proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations, provided they meet the core function of acting as an intermediary for insurers. The key differentiator is the business activity itself, not solely the legal structure. Therefore, an entity structured as a corporation that engages in advising on or arranging insurance contracts on behalf of insurers is considered an Insurance Agency.
Incorrect
An Insurance Agency, as defined by the Code of Conduct, is a person or entity that holds itself out to advise on or arrange insurance contracts in Hong Kong as an agent or subagent for one or more insurers. This definition encompasses various business structures, including sole proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations, provided they meet the core function of acting as an intermediary for insurers. The key differentiator is the business activity itself, not solely the legal structure. Therefore, an entity structured as a corporation that engages in advising on or arranging insurance contracts on behalf of insurers is considered an Insurance Agency.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent’s principal appointments are being examined. The agent is appointed by a composite insurer that conducts both general and long-term business, and also by a conglomerate group of companies whose activities encompass both general and long-term insurance business. The agent’s own registration permits them to engage in both general and long-term insurance business without any restrictions. Under the relevant regulations, how many principals is this agent considered to be representing?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically focusing on the distinction between composite insurers and groups of companies. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Similarly, a group of companies is treated as one principal if its activities are limited to either general or long-term business, or two principals if its activities span both, unless the agent’s scope is restricted to one. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer and a group of companies, both of which conduct both general and long-term business, and the agent’s activities are not restricted, would be representing a total of four principals (two from the composite insurer and two from the group of companies). This scenario adheres to the maximum limit of four principals, with no more than two being long-term insurers.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the rules governing the number of principals an insurance agent can represent, specifically focusing on the distinction between composite insurers and groups of companies. According to the regulations, a composite insurer counts as two principals (one general and one long-term) unless the agent’s activities are restricted to only one of these business types. Similarly, a group of companies is treated as one principal if its activities are limited to either general or long-term business, or two principals if its activities span both, unless the agent’s scope is restricted to one. Therefore, an agent representing a composite insurer and a group of companies, both of which conduct both general and long-term business, and the agent’s activities are not restricted, would be representing a total of four principals (two from the composite insurer and two from the group of companies). This scenario adheres to the maximum limit of four principals, with no more than two being long-term insurers.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance underwriting agent, expressly instructed by the principal not to accept cargo risks destined for West Africa, has on multiple occasions verbally agreed to provide temporary cover for such risks to a client. Crucially, the principal subsequently issued policies to the client for these very risks. Based on these past dealings, if the agent again accepts a similar risk for West Africa, on what legal basis might the insurer be bound by this action, according to principles relevant to insurance agency in Hong Kong?
Correct
This scenario tests the understanding of apparent authority, a key concept in agency law relevant to the IIQE syllabus. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if that authority was not expressly granted. In this case, the insurer (principal) had previously issued policies for cargo risks to West Africa, despite explicitly forbidding their agent from accepting such risks. This pattern of conduct, where the principal ratified the agent’s unauthorized actions by issuing policies, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the agent possesses the authority to grant temporary cover for these risks. Therefore, the insurer would likely be bound by the agent’s future acceptance of such risks due to apparent authority, as the client’s reliance on the past dealings is justified. Option B is incorrect because agency by estoppel requires a representation by the principal that the agent has authority, which is not the primary basis here; the insurer’s actions (issuing policies) are the manifestation. Option C is incorrect as authority of necessity applies in urgent situations where communication is impossible, which is not indicated in the scenario. Option D is incorrect because while the agent has duties to the principal, the question focuses on the principal’s liability to the third party due to the agent’s actions, not the agent’s breach of duty.
Incorrect
This scenario tests the understanding of apparent authority, a key concept in agency law relevant to the IIQE syllabus. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act on the principal’s behalf, even if that authority was not expressly granted. In this case, the insurer (principal) had previously issued policies for cargo risks to West Africa, despite explicitly forbidding their agent from accepting such risks. This pattern of conduct, where the principal ratified the agent’s unauthorized actions by issuing policies, creates a reasonable belief in the client that the agent possesses the authority to grant temporary cover for these risks. Therefore, the insurer would likely be bound by the agent’s future acceptance of such risks due to apparent authority, as the client’s reliance on the past dealings is justified. Option B is incorrect because agency by estoppel requires a representation by the principal that the agent has authority, which is not the primary basis here; the insurer’s actions (issuing policies) are the manifestation. Option C is incorrect as authority of necessity applies in urgent situations where communication is impossible, which is not indicated in the scenario. Option D is incorrect because while the agent has duties to the principal, the question focuses on the principal’s liability to the third party due to the agent’s actions, not the agent’s breach of duty.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
When developing a comprehensive strategy to minimize the financial impact of potential adverse events on an organization, which of the following would be considered a core component of a risk financing program, irrespective of the effectiveness of loss control measures?
Correct
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the loss, self-insurance is a structured form of retention, and risk transfer other than insurance (like contractual agreements) are also valid methods. Therefore, all listed options are components of a risk financing program aimed at minimizing the adverse effects of future losses on an organization.
Incorrect
Risk financing is a broad strategy to mitigate the financial impact of losses. While insurance is a primary tool, it’s not the only one. Risk assumption (or retention) involves accepting the loss, self-insurance is a structured form of retention, and risk transfer other than insurance (like contractual agreements) are also valid methods. Therefore, all listed options are components of a risk financing program aimed at minimizing the adverse effects of future losses on an organization.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy, an insured discovered their claim for a delayed flight was rejected. The policy document explicitly listed covered causes for travel delay, such as adverse weather, industrial action, hijacking, and technical malfunctions of the common carrier. The insured’s flight was delayed due to ‘aircraft rotation,’ a reason not enumerated within the policy’s specified perils. Which of the following best explains the insurer’s decision to deny the claim?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where a flight departed on time, but the insured submitted a claim for a travel delay. The policy’s coverage for travel delay is typically based on specific, named perils. In this case, the cause of the delay (aircraft rotation) was not listed as an insured peril in the policy. Therefore, the insurer correctly rejected the claim because the event triggering the delay was not a covered cause of loss under the terms of the travel delay benefit. It’s crucial to differentiate between departure and arrival delays, as policies may not cover both, and the specific perils listed for delay coverage are paramount.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where a flight departed on time, but the insured submitted a claim for a travel delay. The policy’s coverage for travel delay is typically based on specific, named perils. In this case, the cause of the delay (aircraft rotation) was not listed as an insured peril in the policy. Therefore, the insurer correctly rejected the claim because the event triggering the delay was not a covered cause of loss under the terms of the travel delay benefit. It’s crucial to differentiate between departure and arrival delays, as policies may not cover both, and the specific perils listed for delay coverage are paramount.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
During the application process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, a business owner failed to disclose a history of significant water damage to the premises, deeming it irrelevant. Subsequently, a fire occurred, and the insurer discovered the prior undisclosed damage, which exacerbated the fire’s impact. Under the principles governing insurance contracts, what is the most likely consequence for the policyholder due to this omission?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the “utmost good faith” principle in insurance contracts, specifically how a breach of this duty by the proposer can affect the policy. The “utmost good faith” (uberrimae fidei) is a fundamental principle requiring both parties to an insurance contract to disclose all material facts. If the proposer fails to do so, or misrepresents information, it constitutes a breach of this duty. The consequences of such a breach, as outlined in the syllabus (3.2.5 & 3.2.6), typically include the insurer’s right to avoid the policy, meaning they can treat it as if it never existed, and deny claims. Option (a) accurately reflects this consequence. Option (b) is incorrect because while an insurer might offer a reduced payout in some situations, the primary remedy for a material non-disclosure or misrepresentation is avoidance. Option (c) is incorrect as the insurer’s right to avoid the policy is not dependent on proving negligence; it’s about the breach of the duty of utmost good faith. Option (d) is incorrect because while the insurer has a duty of good faith, the question specifically focuses on the proposer’s breach and its impact on the policy’s validity.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the “utmost good faith” principle in insurance contracts, specifically how a breach of this duty by the proposer can affect the policy. The “utmost good faith” (uberrimae fidei) is a fundamental principle requiring both parties to an insurance contract to disclose all material facts. If the proposer fails to do so, or misrepresents information, it constitutes a breach of this duty. The consequences of such a breach, as outlined in the syllabus (3.2.5 & 3.2.6), typically include the insurer’s right to avoid the policy, meaning they can treat it as if it never existed, and deny claims. Option (a) accurately reflects this consequence. Option (b) is incorrect because while an insurer might offer a reduced payout in some situations, the primary remedy for a material non-disclosure or misrepresentation is avoidance. Option (c) is incorrect as the insurer’s right to avoid the policy is not dependent on proving negligence; it’s about the breach of the duty of utmost good faith. Option (d) is incorrect because while the insurer has a duty of good faith, the question specifically focuses on the proposer’s breach and its impact on the policy’s validity.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
During a severe industrial accident, Mr. Chan sustained a crush injury to his dominant hand. Despite extensive medical treatment and rehabilitation over 18 months, his hand remains permanently incapable of grasping, holding, or performing any fine motor tasks necessary for gainful employment. He can still move his fingers to some extent and the hand is not physically severed. Under a standard personal accident policy, which of the following best describes the likely classification of Mr. Chan’s injury in relation to limb loss benefits?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the definition of ‘loss of limb’ under a personal accident policy, specifically focusing on the distinction between physical separation and permanent loss of use. The scenario describes a severe injury that, while not a complete physical severance, renders the limb permanently unusable for its intended function. According to typical policy definitions, permanent loss of use of a limb at or above the wrist or ankle is considered equivalent to physical loss. Therefore, the insured’s inability to perform any work due to the permanent loss of function in their hand would qualify for the benefit, assuming other policy conditions are met. Option B is incorrect because it focuses on the inability to perform the *specific* occupation rather than *any* occupation. Option C is incorrect as the definition typically refers to loss of use, not just pain or discomfort. Option D is incorrect because the policy usually defines loss of use in terms of functional incapacitation, not necessarily the inability to perform daily activities unrelated to earning a living.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the definition of ‘loss of limb’ under a personal accident policy, specifically focusing on the distinction between physical separation and permanent loss of use. The scenario describes a severe injury that, while not a complete physical severance, renders the limb permanently unusable for its intended function. According to typical policy definitions, permanent loss of use of a limb at or above the wrist or ankle is considered equivalent to physical loss. Therefore, the insured’s inability to perform any work due to the permanent loss of function in their hand would qualify for the benefit, assuming other policy conditions are met. Option B is incorrect because it focuses on the inability to perform the *specific* occupation rather than *any* occupation. Option C is incorrect as the definition typically refers to loss of use, not just pain or discomfort. Option D is incorrect because the policy usually defines loss of use in terms of functional incapacitation, not necessarily the inability to perform daily activities unrelated to earning a living.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
During a client meeting, an insurance agent, Mr. Chan, who is appointed by Insurer X, is actively promoting a policy from Insurer Y, for whom he is not authorized. His supervisor, Ms. Lee, who is aware that Mr. Chan lacks the necessary appointment for Insurer Y, observes the entire interaction without intervening. If Mr. Chan’s actions constitute an offense under the Insurance Ordinance, what is Ms. Lee’s legal standing regarding this situation?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of secondary participation in criminal offenses within the insurance industry context. The scenario describes an insurance agent, Mr. Wong, soliciting business for an insurer he is not appointed with, while his manager, Miss Chiu, who is aware of this fact, does nothing to stop him. According to the provided text, a secondary party is someone who aids, abets, counsels, or procures the commission of an offense. Inactivity, when there is a right to control another’s actions and a deliberate failure to exercise it, can constitute encouragement and thus aiding or abetting. Miss Chiu’s inaction, knowing Mr. Wong is acting unlawfully, makes her a secondary party to the offense, equally responsible as the principal perpetrator. Therefore, she is liable for aiding and abetting the commission of the offense under Section 77(1) of the Insurance Ordinance.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of secondary participation in criminal offenses within the insurance industry context. The scenario describes an insurance agent, Mr. Wong, soliciting business for an insurer he is not appointed with, while his manager, Miss Chiu, who is aware of this fact, does nothing to stop him. According to the provided text, a secondary party is someone who aids, abets, counsels, or procures the commission of an offense. Inactivity, when there is a right to control another’s actions and a deliberate failure to exercise it, can constitute encouragement and thus aiding or abetting. Miss Chiu’s inaction, knowing Mr. Wong is acting unlawfully, makes her a secondary party to the offense, equally responsible as the principal perpetrator. Therefore, she is liable for aiding and abetting the commission of the offense under Section 77(1) of the Insurance Ordinance.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a newly appointed individual is eager to begin their insurance agency business. They have received an offer of appointment from a principal but are awaiting formal confirmation from the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB). According to relevant regulations, what is the earliest point at which this individual can legally commence their duties and represent the principal?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must have their registration confirmed in writing by the IARB before they can legally act as or hold themselves out as insurance agents for a principal. Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance makes it an offense to act as an insurance agent without proper registration. Therefore, an individual cannot solicit business or represent themselves as an agent for a principal until they receive the official Notice of Confirmation of Registration from the IARB.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) requires that individuals must have their registration confirmed in writing by the IARB before they can legally act as or hold themselves out as insurance agents for a principal. Section 77 of the Insurance Ordinance makes it an offense to act as an insurance agent without proper registration. Therefore, an individual cannot solicit business or represent themselves as an agent for a principal until they receive the official Notice of Confirmation of Registration from the IARB.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company discovers a potential discrepancy in a high-value claim that suggests fraudulent activity. The company’s compliance officer is considering reporting this to the police. Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) in Hong Kong, which of the following actions is permissible regarding the policyholder’s personal data for this purpose?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of exemptions to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) in Hong Kong, specifically concerning the prevention or detection of crime. The PDPO allows for the disclosure of personal data without consent if it is for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime, apprehending or prosecuting offenders, or assessing or collecting taxes. In this scenario, the insurance company is legally permitted to disclose the policyholder’s medical information to the police for an investigation into a potential insurance fraud case, as this falls under the exemption for the prevention or detection of crime. The other options are incorrect because they either suggest a need for consent when it’s not required for crime prevention, or they misinterpret the scope of other exemptions.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of exemptions to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) in Hong Kong, specifically concerning the prevention or detection of crime. The PDPO allows for the disclosure of personal data without consent if it is for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime, apprehending or prosecuting offenders, or assessing or collecting taxes. In this scenario, the insurance company is legally permitted to disclose the policyholder’s medical information to the police for an investigation into a potential insurance fraud case, as this falls under the exemption for the prevention or detection of crime. The other options are incorrect because they either suggest a need for consent when it’s not required for crime prevention, or they misinterpret the scope of other exemptions.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
During a comprehensive review of a travel insurance policy, an insured cancelled their trip due to a family member’s sudden health deterioration. The policy contained a proviso excluding losses arising from conditions known to exist at the time of certificate issuance. The family member had a chronic illness, but the specific event causing the cancellation was an unforeseen complication that occurred after the policy was in effect. The insurer initially declined the claim, citing the pre-existing chronic illness. However, upon further investigation, it was determined that the chronic condition, at the time of policy purchase, did not present a significant risk that would have reasonably led to cancellation. Which principle most accurately reflects the insurer’s eventual decision to accept the claim?
Correct
The core of this question lies in interpreting the ‘pre-existing conditions’ clause within the context of the provided case. The insurer’s initial denial was based on the father’s chronic renal failure being present at the time of certificate issuance. However, the crucial point for coverage under ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ is whether the pre-existing condition, at the time of policy inception, would have prompted a reasonable person to cancel the trip. The case highlights that the father’s condition was stable and a routine appointment, not a cause for cancellation, until it unexpectedly deteriorated. Therefore, the condition that *actually* led to the cancellation (the deterioration) was not known to exist at the time of policy issuance, making the claim valid. The insurer’s reconsideration and acceptance confirm this interpretation, focusing on the *causative* nature of the condition at the policy’s effective date, rather than its mere existence.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in interpreting the ‘pre-existing conditions’ clause within the context of the provided case. The insurer’s initial denial was based on the father’s chronic renal failure being present at the time of certificate issuance. However, the crucial point for coverage under ‘Loss of Deposit or Cancellation’ is whether the pre-existing condition, at the time of policy inception, would have prompted a reasonable person to cancel the trip. The case highlights that the father’s condition was stable and a routine appointment, not a cause for cancellation, until it unexpectedly deteriorated. Therefore, the condition that *actually* led to the cancellation (the deterioration) was not known to exist at the time of policy issuance, making the claim valid. The insurer’s reconsideration and acceptance confirm this interpretation, focusing on the *causative* nature of the condition at the policy’s effective date, rather than its mere existence.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance agent is assisting a potential client in completing a proposal form for a life insurance policy. The client appears uncertain about some details. Which of the following actions best aligns with the regulatory requirements for handling such situations?
Correct
The scenario describes a situation where an insurance agent is assisting a potential policyholder with a proposal form. According to the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents, specifically section 5/32 (b)(1), a registered person must refrain from influencing the potential policyholder and must make it clear that the answers provided are the policyholder’s own responsibility. This ensures the integrity of the application process and prevents misrepresentation. Option B suggests the agent should proactively fill in details based on assumptions, which could lead to inaccuracies and is contrary to the principle of the policyholder’s responsibility. Option C, while mentioning clarity, doesn’t address the core principle of the policyholder’s responsibility for their statements. Option D suggests the agent should only provide information if asked, which is too passive and doesn’t fulfill the duty to assist appropriately while maintaining the policyholder’s ownership of the information.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a situation where an insurance agent is assisting a potential policyholder with a proposal form. According to the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents, specifically section 5/32 (b)(1), a registered person must refrain from influencing the potential policyholder and must make it clear that the answers provided are the policyholder’s own responsibility. This ensures the integrity of the application process and prevents misrepresentation. Option B suggests the agent should proactively fill in details based on assumptions, which could lead to inaccuracies and is contrary to the principle of the policyholder’s responsibility. Option C, while mentioning clarity, doesn’t address the core principle of the policyholder’s responsibility for their statements. Option D suggests the agent should only provide information if asked, which is too passive and doesn’t fulfill the duty to assist appropriately while maintaining the policyholder’s ownership of the information.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
During the underwriting process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, an applicant, while answering all direct questions truthfully, inadvertently omits mentioning a minor structural alteration made to their building that, if known, would have slightly increased the premium. This omission was not intentional but resulted from the applicant not considering it significant. Under the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), which of the following best describes this situation?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental principle of utmost good faith, which is a cornerstone of insurance contracts. Non-fraudulent non-disclosure occurs when a party negligently or innocently fails to reveal material facts that would influence a prudent underwriter’s decision. This is a breach of the duty of utmost good faith, distinct from ordinary good faith which only requires truthful answers to specific questions. While all options relate to breaches of good faith, only non-fraudulent non-disclosure specifically addresses the negligent omission of material facts.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental principle of utmost good faith, which is a cornerstone of insurance contracts. Non-fraudulent non-disclosure occurs when a party negligently or innocently fails to reveal material facts that would influence a prudent underwriter’s decision. This is a breach of the duty of utmost good faith, distinct from ordinary good faith which only requires truthful answers to specific questions. While all options relate to breaches of good faith, only non-fraudulent non-disclosure specifically addresses the negligent omission of material facts.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a claims assessor is examining the conditions under which a policyholder can receive compensation. They are particularly interested in the specific trigger event that must occur for a claim to be considered valid. According to the principles outlined in the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), what term best describes this trigger event, which is a cause of loss that must be involved for a claim to be established?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental definition of an ‘insured peril’ as a cause of loss that must be present for a valid claim to arise. Option (b) describes a ‘peril’ generally, which is a broader term. Option (c) defines ‘loss prevention,’ which is a risk management technique, not a cause of loss covered by a policy. Option (d) defines ‘loss reduction,’ which is also a risk management technique focused on mitigating the severity of losses.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental definition of an ‘insured peril’ as a cause of loss that must be present for a valid claim to arise. Option (b) describes a ‘peril’ generally, which is a broader term. Option (c) defines ‘loss prevention,’ which is a risk management technique, not a cause of loss covered by a policy. Option (d) defines ‘loss reduction,’ which is also a risk management technique focused on mitigating the severity of losses.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an authorized insurer in Hong Kong, which is licensed to conduct both general and long-term business but is not a captive insurer, is found to have its general business solvency margin calculated based on premium income. The Insurance Authority is assessing its compliance with minimum solvency requirements. What is the minimum solvency margin applicable to the general business operations of this insurer?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the minimum solvency margin requirements for general business insurers in Hong Kong. According to the provided text, for general business, the solvency margin is calculated based on either premium income or claims outstanding, whichever yields a higher figure. Crucially, there’s a minimum requirement of HK$10 million for general business, but this increases to HK$20 million if the insurer is carrying on ‘statutory insurance business’. The scenario describes an insurer that is licensed for both general and long-term business, and it is specified that it is not a captive insurer. Therefore, the relevant minimum solvency margin for its general business operations would be HK$20 million, assuming it falls under the ‘statutory insurance business’ category, which is a common requirement for insurers operating in Hong Kong. The other options represent different scenarios or incorrect interpretations of the rules.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the minimum solvency margin requirements for general business insurers in Hong Kong. According to the provided text, for general business, the solvency margin is calculated based on either premium income or claims outstanding, whichever yields a higher figure. Crucially, there’s a minimum requirement of HK$10 million for general business, but this increases to HK$20 million if the insurer is carrying on ‘statutory insurance business’. The scenario describes an insurer that is licensed for both general and long-term business, and it is specified that it is not a captive insurer. Therefore, the relevant minimum solvency margin for its general business operations would be HK$20 million, assuming it falls under the ‘statutory insurance business’ category, which is a common requirement for insurers operating in Hong Kong. The other options represent different scenarios or incorrect interpretations of the rules.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a Registered Person (RP) who is authorized to conduct regulated long-term insurance business has successfully completed all mandated Continuing Professional Development (CPD) hours for the current assessment year. Subject to meeting all other fitness and properness standards, what is the primary implication of this CPD completion for their registration status, as per the guidelines overseen by the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB)?
Correct
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP who is registered to engage in the sale of regulated long-term insurance products (RSTB) and has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year, is considered to have met the CPD criteria for maintaining their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field.
Incorrect
The Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB) is responsible for assessing the compliance of Registered Persons (RPs) with Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements. According to the relevant guidance, an RP who is registered to engage in the sale of regulated long-term insurance products (RSTB) and has fulfilled all CPD hours for an assessment year within that year, is considered to have met the CPD criteria for maintaining their registration for an additional 12 months, provided they also meet other fitness and properness criteria. This ensures that RPs remain knowledgeable and competent in their field.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a logistics company is examining its insurance coverage for goods handled by third-party custodians. A manager is considering whether a bailee, who is legally responsible for goods entrusted to their care but does not own them, possesses an insurable interest in those goods. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the existence of insurable interest for a bailee?
Correct
Insurable interest is a fundamental principle in insurance, requiring the policyholder to have a legitimate financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. This prevents individuals from profiting from the misfortune of others or engaging in speculative gambling. In the context of property insurance, a bailee, who is entrusted with goods but does not own them, has an insurable interest because they are legally responsible for the safekeeping of those goods. If the goods are damaged or lost while in their care, the bailee would suffer a financial loss. Therefore, they can insure the goods to cover this potential liability. A mere contractual obligation to repair damaged property, without any ownership or legal responsibility for its loss, does not typically create an insurable interest. Similarly, a person who has a financial interest in a debtor’s ability to repay a loan does not automatically have an insurable interest in the debtor’s property unless that property has been pledged as collateral (e.g., mortgaged). A landlord insuring against loss of rent due to a fire is an example of insuring a legal right, not a direct property interest in the tenant’s belongings.
Incorrect
Insurable interest is a fundamental principle in insurance, requiring the policyholder to have a legitimate financial stake in the subject matter of the insurance. This prevents individuals from profiting from the misfortune of others or engaging in speculative gambling. In the context of property insurance, a bailee, who is entrusted with goods but does not own them, has an insurable interest because they are legally responsible for the safekeeping of those goods. If the goods are damaged or lost while in their care, the bailee would suffer a financial loss. Therefore, they can insure the goods to cover this potential liability. A mere contractual obligation to repair damaged property, without any ownership or legal responsibility for its loss, does not typically create an insurable interest. Similarly, a person who has a financial interest in a debtor’s ability to repay a loan does not automatically have an insurable interest in the debtor’s property unless that property has been pledged as collateral (e.g., mortgaged). A landlord insuring against loss of rent due to a fire is an example of insuring a legal right, not a direct property interest in the tenant’s belongings.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
When a Hong Kong data user engages a data processor located overseas and finds it impractical to establish a fully enforceable contract that covers all aspects of personal data protection under the PDPO, what alternative approach does the Ordinance permit for ensuring compliance?
Correct
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for ‘other means’ of compliance when a direct contractual agreement with a data processor is not feasible. This flexibility enables data users to employ non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms to ensure their data processors adhere to data protection requirements. This approach is crucial for maintaining data security and privacy when direct contractual enforcement is impractical, such as in certain cross-border data processing scenarios or when dealing with entities that operate under different legal frameworks. The key is that these ‘other means’ must effectively serve the purpose of monitoring and enforcing data protection standards, even in the absence of a formal contract.
Incorrect
The Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) allows for ‘other means’ of compliance when a direct contractual agreement with a data processor is not feasible. This flexibility enables data users to employ non-contractual oversight and auditing mechanisms to ensure their data processors adhere to data protection requirements. This approach is crucial for maintaining data security and privacy when direct contractual enforcement is impractical, such as in certain cross-border data processing scenarios or when dealing with entities that operate under different legal frameworks. The key is that these ‘other means’ must effectively serve the purpose of monitoring and enforcing data protection standards, even in the absence of a formal contract.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a financial advisor is considering transferring a life insurance policy they hold to a business partner. The partner has no personal financial stake in the advisor’s life. According to the principles governing the transfer of insurance rights, what is the critical condition for the validity of this transfer if it involves assigning the entire insurance contract?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the distinction between assigning an insurance contract and assigning the right to insurance money, specifically concerning the requirement of insurable interest. When the insurance contract itself is assigned, both the original policyholder (assignor) and the new policyholder (assignee) must possess insurable interest at the time of assignment for the assignment to be valid. This ensures that the assignee has a genuine financial stake in the insured subject matter. In contrast, assigning only the right to the insurance proceeds does not require the assignee to have insurable interest, as it can function as a gift or a transfer of a right to receive payment, irrespective of the assignee’s stake in the insured event.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the distinction between assigning an insurance contract and assigning the right to insurance money, specifically concerning the requirement of insurable interest. When the insurance contract itself is assigned, both the original policyholder (assignor) and the new policyholder (assignee) must possess insurable interest at the time of assignment for the assignment to be valid. This ensures that the assignee has a genuine financial stake in the insured subject matter. In contrast, assigning only the right to the insurance proceeds does not require the assignee to have insurable interest, as it can function as a gift or a transfer of a right to receive payment, irrespective of the assignee’s stake in the insured event.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, the Insurance Authority identifies that an authorized insurer is engaging in practices that, while not immediately leading to insolvency, pose a significant risk to its policyholders due to a lack of robust risk management frameworks. Which of the following actions would represent a statutory power of intervention available to the Insurance Authority to address this situation, short of outright liquidation?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) possesses a range of statutory powers to intervene in the operations of insurers when necessary. These powers are designed to protect policyholders and maintain the stability of the insurance market. The options provided represent different levels of intervention. Liquidation is the most severe action, involving the winding up of the company. Restrictions on business activities, such as limiting the types of policies an insurer can underwrite or prohibiting new business, are less severe but still significant interventions. Appointing a statutory manager is a measure where the IA takes direct control of the insurer’s management to rectify issues. Therefore, the ability to impose restrictions on an insurer’s business activities is a key intervention power granted to the IA under relevant Hong Kong insurance legislation, such as the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41).
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) possesses a range of statutory powers to intervene in the operations of insurers when necessary. These powers are designed to protect policyholders and maintain the stability of the insurance market. The options provided represent different levels of intervention. Liquidation is the most severe action, involving the winding up of the company. Restrictions on business activities, such as limiting the types of policies an insurer can underwrite or prohibiting new business, are less severe but still significant interventions. Appointing a statutory manager is a measure where the IA takes direct control of the insurer’s management to rectify issues. Therefore, the ability to impose restrictions on an insurer’s business activities is a key intervention power granted to the IA under relevant Hong Kong insurance legislation, such as the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
In a situation where a personal accident policy defines ‘Accident’ as an event occurring entirely beyond the insured person’s control and caused by violent, external, and visible means, and a claimant dies from an intracerebral haemorrhage following a fall, what would be the most critical factor for the insurer to consider when assessing the claim, given medical evidence suggesting the haemorrhage was spontaneous and not due to external trauma?
Correct
The core of this question lies in interpreting the definition of ‘Accident’ as provided in the policy, which requires the cause to be ‘violent, external and visible means’. The medical experts’ opinion, supported by the attending physicians, concluded that the intracerebral haemorrhage was spontaneous and related to primary hypertension, not caused by external means. The location of the haemorrhage (confined to the right thalamus without signs in the meningeal areas) further supported the absence of external trauma. Therefore, the insurer’s repudiation was based on the finding that the death did not result from an event meeting the policy’s definition of an ‘Accident’.
Incorrect
The core of this question lies in interpreting the definition of ‘Accident’ as provided in the policy, which requires the cause to be ‘violent, external and visible means’. The medical experts’ opinion, supported by the attending physicians, concluded that the intracerebral haemorrhage was spontaneous and related to primary hypertension, not caused by external means. The location of the haemorrhage (confined to the right thalamus without signs in the meningeal areas) further supported the absence of external trauma. Therefore, the insurer’s repudiation was based on the finding that the death did not result from an event meeting the policy’s definition of an ‘Accident’.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company is examining a claim where a policyholder suffered damage due to the negligence of a third party. After the insurer settled the claim and paid the policyholder the full insured amount, it was discovered that the policyholder had initiated legal proceedings against the negligent third party before the insurance claim was finalized. According to the principles of insurance law, what is the insurer’s standing regarding the policyholder’s legal action against the third party?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the principle of subrogation in insurance, specifically how it operates after a loss has been paid. Subrogation allows the insurer, after indemnifying the insured, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the responsible party bears the cost. Option (b) is incorrect because the insured’s right to sue the third party is transferred to the insurer upon payment, not retained. Option (c) is incorrect as the insurer’s right is to recover from the responsible third party, not to claim an additional sum from the insured. Option (d) is incorrect because while the insurer acts in the insured’s name, the right to pursue the third party arises from the payment of the claim, not from a separate agreement made after the loss.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the principle of subrogation in insurance, specifically how it operates after a loss has been paid. Subrogation allows the insurer, after indemnifying the insured, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the responsible party bears the cost. Option (b) is incorrect because the insured’s right to sue the third party is transferred to the insurer upon payment, not retained. Option (c) is incorrect as the insurer’s right is to recover from the responsible third party, not to claim an additional sum from the insured. Option (d) is incorrect because while the insurer acts in the insured’s name, the right to pursue the third party arises from the payment of the claim, not from a separate agreement made after the loss.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a household insurance policy is examined. The policy states that if a sofa is damaged beyond repair due to a covered peril, the insurer will provide a brand-new sofa of equivalent quality and specifications, without any reduction for the age or previous use of the original sofa. This provision is most accurately described as:
Correct
This question tests the understanding of ‘New for Old’ cover, a policy provision that deviates from strict indemnity. In a ‘New for Old’ scenario, the insurer agrees to replace damaged items with new ones, without deducting for wear and tear or depreciation. This is a common feature in household and marine hull policies, designed to provide a more favourable outcome for the policyholder than a strict indemnity would allow, often as a marketing or customer relations strategy. The other options represent different concepts: ‘Reinstatement insurance’ is similar but typically applies to property and is often found in commercial policies; ‘Agreed value policies’ fix the sum insured based on an expert valuation, usually for high-value items where depreciation is minimal or subjective, and the payout for partial loss is typically the actual loss amount, not the agreed value; and ‘Contribution’ is a doctrine that applies between insurers in cases of double insurance to ensure no single insurer pays more than their proportionate share of the loss.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of ‘New for Old’ cover, a policy provision that deviates from strict indemnity. In a ‘New for Old’ scenario, the insurer agrees to replace damaged items with new ones, without deducting for wear and tear or depreciation. This is a common feature in household and marine hull policies, designed to provide a more favourable outcome for the policyholder than a strict indemnity would allow, often as a marketing or customer relations strategy. The other options represent different concepts: ‘Reinstatement insurance’ is similar but typically applies to property and is often found in commercial policies; ‘Agreed value policies’ fix the sum insured based on an expert valuation, usually for high-value items where depreciation is minimal or subjective, and the payout for partial loss is typically the actual loss amount, not the agreed value; and ‘Contribution’ is a doctrine that applies between insurers in cases of double insurance to ensure no single insurer pays more than their proportionate share of the loss.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
When assessing whether a particular arrangement constitutes a legally binding contract, which of the following is the most critical distinguishing factor from a mere social understanding?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are typically not considered contracts because the parties do not intend to be legally bound. The key differentiator is the intention to create legal relations and the enforceability of the promises made. An insurance policy, while a crucial document, is evidence of a contract, not the contract itself. The other options describe aspects that might be associated with agreements but do not define the core legal characteristic of a contract.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the fundamental nature of a contract as a legally enforceable agreement. While many agreements exist in daily life, not all are intended to create legal obligations. Social arrangements, like a lunch appointment, are typically not considered contracts because the parties do not intend to be legally bound. The key differentiator is the intention to create legal relations and the enforceability of the promises made. An insurance policy, while a crucial document, is evidence of a contract, not the contract itself. The other options describe aspects that might be associated with agreements but do not define the core legal characteristic of a contract.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During a busy international airport, an individual misplaced their wallet containing cash and credit cards. The wallet was later found by airport staff, but the cash was missing. The individual reported the incident to the local police within 24 hours. Under a typical Personal Money cover, which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to a claim denial for the lost cash?
Correct
The Personal Money cover typically indemnifies for losses of cash, banknotes, cheques, travellers’ cheques, and money orders directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was stolen, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of carelessness (leaving the wallet behind) might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for theft to be considered the sole cause of the loss. Therefore, the insurer might argue that the loss wasn’t solely due to theft but also due to the insured’s negligence in securing their belongings, potentially leading to a claim denial based on the interpretation of ‘direct result’.
Incorrect
The Personal Money cover typically indemnifies for losses of cash, banknotes, cheques, travellers’ cheques, and money orders directly resulting from theft, robbery, or burglary. While the insured’s wallet was stolen, the insurer’s stance in Case 35 suggests that a preceding act of carelessness (leaving the wallet behind) might be interpreted as breaking the direct causal link required for theft to be considered the sole cause of the loss. Therefore, the insurer might argue that the loss wasn’t solely due to theft but also due to the insured’s negligence in securing their belongings, potentially leading to a claim denial based on the interpretation of ‘direct result’.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
When a dispute arises regarding a travel insurance claim in Hong Kong, and the case is brought before the Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau (ICCB), what specific authority does the Complaints Panel possess that might differ from a standard court of law when adjudicating the matter?
Correct
This question assesses the understanding of how the Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau (ICCB) operates, specifically its Complaints Panel. The key distinction is that the Complaints Panel can consider factors beyond the literal wording of a policy, such as expected standards of good insurance practice outlined in the Code of Conduct for Insurers. While the ICCB does handle claims disputes, its panel’s authority extends to interpreting policy terms in light of broader ethical and professional guidelines, not just strict legalistic adherence. Therefore, the ability to look beyond strict interpretation and rely on the Code of Conduct is a distinguishing feature of the Complaints Panel’s decision-making process.
Incorrect
This question assesses the understanding of how the Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau (ICCB) operates, specifically its Complaints Panel. The key distinction is that the Complaints Panel can consider factors beyond the literal wording of a policy, such as expected standards of good insurance practice outlined in the Code of Conduct for Insurers. While the ICCB does handle claims disputes, its panel’s authority extends to interpreting policy terms in light of broader ethical and professional guidelines, not just strict legalistic adherence. Therefore, the ability to look beyond strict interpretation and rely on the Code of Conduct is a distinguishing feature of the Complaints Panel’s decision-making process.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
When a life insurance policyholder passes away due to the direct negligence of another party, and the life insurer settles the claim, what is the insurer’s standing regarding the recovery of the payout from the negligent party, considering the principle of indemnity?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the principle of indemnity and its relationship with subrogation. Subrogation is a mechanism that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue recovery from a third party responsible for the loss. This principle is fundamental to indemnity because it prevents the insured from profiting from their loss by receiving compensation from both the insurer and the responsible third party. In the context of life insurance, the payout is not intended to indemnify a financial loss in the same way as general insurance. Instead, it is a pre-agreed sum payable upon the occurrence of a specific event (death). Therefore, the insurer does not acquire subrogation rights against a negligent third party in life insurance, as the payment is not an indemnity for a quantifiable financial loss that could be recovered from another source. This aligns with the concept that subrogation is a consequence of indemnity, and where indemnity does not apply, subrogation rights do not arise.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the principle of indemnity and its relationship with subrogation. Subrogation is a mechanism that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue recovery from a third party responsible for the loss. This principle is fundamental to indemnity because it prevents the insured from profiting from their loss by receiving compensation from both the insurer and the responsible third party. In the context of life insurance, the payout is not intended to indemnify a financial loss in the same way as general insurance. Instead, it is a pre-agreed sum payable upon the occurrence of a specific event (death). Therefore, the insurer does not acquire subrogation rights against a negligent third party in life insurance, as the payment is not an indemnity for a quantifiable financial loss that could be recovered from another source. This aligns with the concept that subrogation is a consequence of indemnity, and where indemnity does not apply, subrogation rights do not arise.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
During the underwriting process for a comprehensive property insurance policy, an applicant, while answering all questions truthfully, inadvertently omits to mention a minor structural alteration made to their building that, if known, would have slightly increased the premium. This omission was not intentional but resulted from the applicant not considering it significant. Under the Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41), which of the following best describes this situation?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental principle of utmost good faith, which is a cornerstone of insurance contracts. Non-fraudulent non-disclosure occurs when a party negligently or innocently fails to reveal material facts that would influence an underwriter’s decision. This is a breach of the duty of utmost good faith, distinct from ordinary good faith which only requires truthful answers to direct questions. While all options relate to breaches of good faith, only non-fraudulent non-disclosure specifically addresses the negligent omission of material facts.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) governs the insurance industry in Hong Kong. The question tests the understanding of the fundamental principle of utmost good faith, which is a cornerstone of insurance contracts. Non-fraudulent non-disclosure occurs when a party negligently or innocently fails to reveal material facts that would influence an underwriter’s decision. This is a breach of the duty of utmost good faith, distinct from ordinary good faith which only requires truthful answers to direct questions. While all options relate to breaches of good faith, only non-fraudulent non-disclosure specifically addresses the negligent omission of material facts.