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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
When an insurance company lacks a dedicated investment department, which core responsibility of the accounting function becomes paramount for safeguarding the insurer’s financial health and future viability, as per general business principles?
Correct
This question assesses the understanding of the role of an accountant within an insurance company, specifically focusing on the critical function of managing company assets. While record-keeping, collections, and payments are all vital accounting functions, the prompt highlights the accountant’s responsibility for the ‘care and placement of company assets’ when a separate investment department is absent. This responsibility is paramount for ensuring the insurer’s financial stability and growth, directly impacting its ability to meet obligations and maintain operations. The other options represent important but distinct accounting duties that do not encompass the strategic management of the company’s investments.
Incorrect
This question assesses the understanding of the role of an accountant within an insurance company, specifically focusing on the critical function of managing company assets. While record-keeping, collections, and payments are all vital accounting functions, the prompt highlights the accountant’s responsibility for the ‘care and placement of company assets’ when a separate investment department is absent. This responsibility is paramount for ensuring the insurer’s financial stability and growth, directly impacting its ability to meet obligations and maintain operations. The other options represent important but distinct accounting duties that do not encompass the strategic management of the company’s investments.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a financial institution (FI) identifies a transaction request from a client whose name is listed as an associate of a designated terrorist entity in a notice published in the Government Gazette. According to the United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO), what is the immediate and most appropriate course of action for the FI?
Correct
The United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO) empowers the Secretary for Security to freeze assets suspected of being linked to terrorism. Section 4 of the UNATMO specifically prohibits providing property or financial services to or for the benefit of a terrorist or terrorist associate without a license. The question describes a scenario where a financial institution (FI) is asked to facilitate a transaction for an individual whose name appears on a list of individuals associated with a designated terrorist organization. This directly triggers the FI’s obligation under the UNATMO to cease dealings with such property and individuals unless a specific license is obtained. Therefore, the FI must refuse the transaction and report the suspicion to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Option B is incorrect because while reporting is necessary, refusing the transaction is the immediate action required. Option C is incorrect as the FI cannot unilaterally decide to proceed with the transaction; it requires explicit authorization. Option D is incorrect because while the FI must maintain screening systems, the immediate action in this scenario is to halt the transaction and report.
Incorrect
The United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO) empowers the Secretary for Security to freeze assets suspected of being linked to terrorism. Section 4 of the UNATMO specifically prohibits providing property or financial services to or for the benefit of a terrorist or terrorist associate without a license. The question describes a scenario where a financial institution (FI) is asked to facilitate a transaction for an individual whose name appears on a list of individuals associated with a designated terrorist organization. This directly triggers the FI’s obligation under the UNATMO to cease dealings with such property and individuals unless a specific license is obtained. Therefore, the FI must refuse the transaction and report the suspicion to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Option B is incorrect because while reporting is necessary, refusing the transaction is the immediate action required. Option C is incorrect as the FI cannot unilaterally decide to proceed with the transaction; it requires explicit authorization. Option D is incorrect because while the FI must maintain screening systems, the immediate action in this scenario is to halt the transaction and report.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
When an insurer actively monitors evolving market demands and competitor strategies to introduce innovative insurance solutions or refine its existing offerings, which core activity is it primarily engaged in, as outlined in the context of product development?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of product development within the insurance industry, specifically focusing on how insurers adapt to market dynamics. Product research is the systematic process of identifying and evaluating new insurance products or modifications to existing ones. This involves analyzing market trends, competitor offerings, and customer needs to ensure the insurer’s product portfolio remains competitive and relevant. Developing new forms of cover or enhancing existing ones, as described in the syllabus section (xv) Product Development, is directly driven by this research. Options B, C, and D describe related but distinct activities. ‘Rateable Share’ pertains to the apportionment of loss among multiple insurers, ‘Reinstatement Insurance’ is a specific type of property cover, and ‘Professional Indemnity Insurance’ is a type of liability cover, not a process for developing new products.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of product development within the insurance industry, specifically focusing on how insurers adapt to market dynamics. Product research is the systematic process of identifying and evaluating new insurance products or modifications to existing ones. This involves analyzing market trends, competitor offerings, and customer needs to ensure the insurer’s product portfolio remains competitive and relevant. Developing new forms of cover or enhancing existing ones, as described in the syllabus section (xv) Product Development, is directly driven by this research. Options B, C, and D describe related but distinct activities. ‘Rateable Share’ pertains to the apportionment of loss among multiple insurers, ‘Reinstatement Insurance’ is a specific type of property cover, and ‘Professional Indemnity Insurance’ is a type of liability cover, not a process for developing new products.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a situation arises where Mr. Chan, a seasoned insurance consultant, consistently allows his junior associate, Ms. Lee, to interact with potential clients, respond to their inquiries, and even present proposals on his behalf. Mr. Chan is aware of these interactions but takes no action to correct any misperceptions about Ms. Lee’s authority. A client, relying on Ms. Lee’s representations about policy coverage that Mr. Chan implicitly endorsed through his silence, signs a contract. Subsequently, Mr. Chan attempts to disavow the terms Ms. Lee agreed to, claiming she lacked the formal authority. Under the principles of agency law relevant to insurance practice in Hong Kong, what is the most likely legal consequence for Mr. Chan?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Agency by Estoppel’ within contract law as it applies to insurance. Agency by Estoppel arises when a principal, through their words or actions, leads a third party to believe that another person is their agent. If the third party acts on this belief, the principal is then prevented (estopped) from denying the existence of the agency relationship, even if no actual agency was granted. This is distinct from ‘Apparent Authority,’ where the principal’s manifestation of authority to the third party creates the appearance of agency, even if the agent’s actual authority is limited. In this scenario, Mr. Chan’s consistent allowance of Ms. Lee to present herself as his representative, coupled with his inaction when she made representations to clients, creates the conditions for agency by estoppel. He is estopped from denying her agency because his conduct led clients to believe she was authorized. Therefore, the clients can hold him bound by her actions.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Agency by Estoppel’ within contract law as it applies to insurance. Agency by Estoppel arises when a principal, through their words or actions, leads a third party to believe that another person is their agent. If the third party acts on this belief, the principal is then prevented (estopped) from denying the existence of the agency relationship, even if no actual agency was granted. This is distinct from ‘Apparent Authority,’ where the principal’s manifestation of authority to the third party creates the appearance of agency, even if the agent’s actual authority is limited. In this scenario, Mr. Chan’s consistent allowance of Ms. Lee to present herself as his representative, coupled with his inaction when she made representations to clients, creates the conditions for agency by estoppel. He is estopped from denying her agency because his conduct led clients to believe she was authorized. Therefore, the clients can hold him bound by her actions.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
When an insurance company indemnifies an insured for a loss caused by a negligent third party, what fundamental legal principle empowers the insurer to pursue the responsible third party for reimbursement?
Correct
Subrogation is a legal principle that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the party at fault bears the ultimate financial responsibility. The insurer’s right to subrogation is limited to the amount it has paid out as indemnity, meaning it cannot profit from the recovery. While subrogation can arise from various legal bases, including tort, contract, and statute, its core purpose is to transfer the insured’s recovery rights to the insurer.
Incorrect
Subrogation is a legal principle that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the party at fault bears the ultimate financial responsibility. The insurer’s right to subrogation is limited to the amount it has paid out as indemnity, meaning it cannot profit from the recovery. While subrogation can arise from various legal bases, including tort, contract, and statute, its core purpose is to transfer the insured’s recovery rights to the insurer.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance intermediary encounters a client’s claim that is supported by medical documents which appear to be altered. The intermediary suspects the client is exaggerating their injury to receive a larger payout. Under the relevant Hong Kong regulations governing insurance intermediaries, what is the most appropriate course of action for the intermediary in this situation?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of an insurance intermediary’s role in preventing and reporting insurance fraud, specifically concerning fraudulent claims. While an intermediary is not a law enforcement officer, they have a duty not to assist in fraud and to report suspicions. This includes being vigilant about suspicious circumstances, doubtful documentation, or verbal cues that suggest a claim is not legitimate. The key is to assist the insurer and the law in combating fraud, but with sensitivity, as the insurer is primarily responsible for investigating and alleging fraud.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of an insurance intermediary’s role in preventing and reporting insurance fraud, specifically concerning fraudulent claims. While an intermediary is not a law enforcement officer, they have a duty not to assist in fraud and to report suspicions. This includes being vigilant about suspicious circumstances, doubtful documentation, or verbal cues that suggest a claim is not legitimate. The key is to assist the insurer and the law in combating fraud, but with sensitivity, as the insurer is primarily responsible for investigating and alleging fraud.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A financial institution, acting as a data user, wishes to use its existing customer data for direct marketing of its new investment products. The institution provides the customer with the necessary prescribed information regarding the use of their data for this purpose via a phone call. The customer verbally agrees to this. According to the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), what is the institution’s subsequent obligation regarding this consent?
Correct
Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), when a data user intends to use personal data for direct marketing for their own purposes, and they provide the prescribed information to the data subject either orally or in writing, the data subject’s consent or indication of no objection can be given in either format. However, if the data subject’s reply is given orally, the data user is legally obligated to confirm this consent in writing to the data subject within 14 days of receiving the oral reply. This written confirmation must specify the permitted kinds of personal data and the permitted classes of marketing subjects. This requirement ensures a clear and documented record of the data subject’s consent for direct marketing activities, mitigating potential disputes and ensuring compliance with the PDPO.
Incorrect
Under the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO), when a data user intends to use personal data for direct marketing for their own purposes, and they provide the prescribed information to the data subject either orally or in writing, the data subject’s consent or indication of no objection can be given in either format. However, if the data subject’s reply is given orally, the data user is legally obligated to confirm this consent in writing to the data subject within 14 days of receiving the oral reply. This written confirmation must specify the permitted kinds of personal data and the permitted classes of marketing subjects. This requirement ensures a clear and documented record of the data subject’s consent for direct marketing activities, mitigating potential disputes and ensuring compliance with the PDPO.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
During a situation where a victim of a road traffic accident suffers injuries, and it is discovered that the at-fault driver’s compulsory motor insurance is invalid, which industry body is primarily responsible for facilitating compensation for the injured party, funded by contributions from the motor insurance sector?
Correct
The Motor Insurers’ Bureau of Hong Kong (MIB) plays a crucial role in compensating victims of road accidents when the compulsory insurance is either absent or ineffective, or when the responsible insurer is in liquidation. This is achieved through a funding mechanism that involves a surcharge on motor insurance premiums, ensuring that innocent parties are not left without recourse. The Employees’ Compensation Insurer Insolvency Bureau (ECIIB) addresses a similar issue but specifically for employees’ compensation policies, stepping in when an insurer becomes insolvent. The Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau (ICCB) handles complaints, and the Employees’ Compensation Insurance Residual Scheme Bureau (ECIRS) acts as a market of last resort for employers struggling to obtain employees’ compensation insurance.
Incorrect
The Motor Insurers’ Bureau of Hong Kong (MIB) plays a crucial role in compensating victims of road accidents when the compulsory insurance is either absent or ineffective, or when the responsible insurer is in liquidation. This is achieved through a funding mechanism that involves a surcharge on motor insurance premiums, ensuring that innocent parties are not left without recourse. The Employees’ Compensation Insurer Insolvency Bureau (ECIIB) addresses a similar issue but specifically for employees’ compensation policies, stepping in when an insurer becomes insolvent. The Insurance Claims Complaints Bureau (ICCB) handles complaints, and the Employees’ Compensation Insurance Residual Scheme Bureau (ECIRS) acts as a market of last resort for employers struggling to obtain employees’ compensation insurance.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company identifies a decline in the uptake of its existing life insurance products. To address this, the company initiates a project to analyze current market demands, competitor offerings, and emerging consumer needs. The goal is to design and introduce new policy structures and benefits that are more appealing and competitive. Which aspect of product development is primarily being undertaken by the company in this scenario?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of product development within the insurance industry, specifically focusing on how insurers adapt to market dynamics. Product research is the core activity that involves monitoring existing products and developing new ones to remain competitive and relevant. While other options relate to insurance operations, they do not directly address the proactive process of creating and refining insurance offerings in response to market trends and competition. Professional indemnity insurance covers liability for negligence, reinsurance is risk transfer, and the Professional Insurance Brokers Association is a regulatory body.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of product development within the insurance industry, specifically focusing on how insurers adapt to market dynamics. Product research is the core activity that involves monitoring existing products and developing new ones to remain competitive and relevant. While other options relate to insurance operations, they do not directly address the proactive process of creating and refining insurance offerings in response to market trends and competition. Professional indemnity insurance covers liability for negligence, reinsurance is risk transfer, and the Professional Insurance Brokers Association is a regulatory body.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an exclusive agent for a product discovers that their principal has entered into an agreement with a second agent for the same territory, violating the exclusivity clause of their existing contract. The agency agreement has a remaining term of two years. Under the Insurance Companies Ordinance (Cap. 41), which governs agency relationships in certain contexts, what is the agent’s most appropriate course of action regarding the agency agreement?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of how an agency agreement is terminated due to a fundamental breach by one of the parties. According to agency law principles, if either the principal or the agent commits a significant violation of the contract’s terms, the non-breaching party has the right to consider the agreement terminated. This termination can be immediate, and the aggrieved party may also seek compensation for any losses incurred due to the breach, such as lost profits. The scenario describes a situation where an exclusive agent discovers the principal has appointed another agent before the agreed-upon term, which constitutes a fundamental breach of the exclusivity clause. Therefore, the agent is entitled to end their performance and claim damages.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of how an agency agreement is terminated due to a fundamental breach by one of the parties. According to agency law principles, if either the principal or the agent commits a significant violation of the contract’s terms, the non-breaching party has the right to consider the agreement terminated. This termination can be immediate, and the aggrieved party may also seek compensation for any losses incurred due to the breach, such as lost profits. The scenario describes a situation where an exclusive agent discovers the principal has appointed another agent before the agreed-upon term, which constitutes a fundamental breach of the exclusivity clause. Therefore, the agent is entitled to end their performance and claim damages.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
When an insurance company seeks to mitigate its exposure to a large or complex risk by transferring a portion of that risk to another entity, what is the primary classification of this action within the context of insurance operations?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of reinsurance as a mechanism for insurers to manage their risk exposure. Outward reinsurance involves an insurer transferring a portion of its risk to another insurer or reinsurer. This is a fundamental concept in insurance operations, allowing companies to underwrite larger risks than they could manage on their own and to stabilize their financial results. The other options describe different aspects of the insurance industry or related concepts. Option B describes inwards reinsurance, where the insurer acts as the reinsurer. Option C refers to the total number of authorized insurers, a statistical measure. Option D relates to the premium volume, another statistical indicator.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of reinsurance as a mechanism for insurers to manage their risk exposure. Outward reinsurance involves an insurer transferring a portion of its risk to another insurer or reinsurer. This is a fundamental concept in insurance operations, allowing companies to underwrite larger risks than they could manage on their own and to stabilize their financial results. The other options describe different aspects of the insurance industry or related concepts. Option B describes inwards reinsurance, where the insurer acts as the reinsurer. Option C refers to the total number of authorized insurers, a statistical measure. Option D relates to the premium volume, another statistical indicator.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
When an insurance company lacks a specialized investment department, which core responsibility of the accountant is highlighted as being of extreme importance for the company’s financial health, encompassing security, yield, and cash flow management?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the role of an accountant within an insurance company, specifically focusing on the importance of managing company assets. While record-keeping, collections, and payments are all crucial functions, the prompt highlights the accountant’s responsibility for the care and placement of company assets, particularly when there isn’t a dedicated investment department. This responsibility is paramount for ensuring the security of assets, achieving a reasonable return on investment, and maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet financial obligations. Therefore, the most critical aspect of the accountant’s role in this context, as emphasized in the provided text, is the prudent management of investments.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the role of an accountant within an insurance company, specifically focusing on the importance of managing company assets. While record-keeping, collections, and payments are all crucial functions, the prompt highlights the accountant’s responsibility for the care and placement of company assets, particularly when there isn’t a dedicated investment department. This responsibility is paramount for ensuring the security of assets, achieving a reasonable return on investment, and maintaining sufficient liquidity to meet financial obligations. Therefore, the most critical aspect of the accountant’s role in this context, as emphasized in the provided text, is the prudent management of investments.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance intermediary discovers that a client’s funds were inadvertently used to facilitate a transaction that could be construed as supporting a terrorist organization. The intermediary had previously implemented robust anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing (AML/CFT) policies and procedures as per the Insurance Authority’s Guideline. However, they failed to file a specific report with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) regarding this particular transaction. Under the United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO), what is the consequence of this failure to report, despite adherence to the IA’s Guideline?
Correct
The United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO) criminalizes the provision or collection of property, or making property or financial services available to terrorists or their associates. A statutory defence is provided if a report is filed with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) in the prescribed manner, disclosing the relevant acts. This defence is specifically linked to the act of reporting suspicious property or financial activities, not to general compliance with anti-money laundering guidelines. Therefore, while adhering to the IA’s Guideline is crucial for overall AML/CFT compliance, it does not directly provide a statutory defence against the specific offences outlined in UNATMO concerning the provision or collection of property for terrorist purposes.
Incorrect
The United Nations (Anti-Terrorism Measures) Ordinance (UNATMO) criminalizes the provision or collection of property, or making property or financial services available to terrorists or their associates. A statutory defence is provided if a report is filed with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) in the prescribed manner, disclosing the relevant acts. This defence is specifically linked to the act of reporting suspicious property or financial activities, not to general compliance with anti-money laundering guidelines. Therefore, while adhering to the IA’s Guideline is crucial for overall AML/CFT compliance, it does not directly provide a statutory defence against the specific offences outlined in UNATMO concerning the provision or collection of property for terrorist purposes.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Under the regulatory framework governing insurance operations in Hong Kong, the Insurance Ordinance establishes a fundamental division of insurance activities. One of these broad classifications pertains to ‘General Business.’ What is the other principal category into which insurance business is officially segmented according to this ordinance?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) in Hong Kong categorizes insurance business into two primary divisions: General Business and Long Term Business. General business encompasses a wide array of non-life insurance products, such as property damage, motor insurance, and liability insurance. Long Term Business, conversely, deals with insurance contracts that are expected to remain in force for extended periods, typically involving life insurance, annuities, and permanent health insurance. The distinction is crucial for regulatory purposes, including capital requirements and solvency margins, as the risk profiles and operational characteristics of these two categories differ significantly. Therefore, ‘Long Term Business’ is the correct counterpart to ‘General Business’ as defined by the Ordinance.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance (Cap. 41) in Hong Kong categorizes insurance business into two primary divisions: General Business and Long Term Business. General business encompasses a wide array of non-life insurance products, such as property damage, motor insurance, and liability insurance. Long Term Business, conversely, deals with insurance contracts that are expected to remain in force for extended periods, typically involving life insurance, annuities, and permanent health insurance. The distinction is crucial for regulatory purposes, including capital requirements and solvency margins, as the risk profiles and operational characteristics of these two categories differ significantly. Therefore, ‘Long Term Business’ is the correct counterpart to ‘General Business’ as defined by the Ordinance.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
During a pending application for registration as a Registered Person with the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB), an appointing Principal discovers that the applicant has recently been involved in a significant financial dispute that could potentially affect their suitability. According to the regulatory framework governing insurance intermediaries in Hong Kong, what is the immediate obligation of the appointing Principal?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) is responsible for overseeing the insurance industry in Hong Kong. When an applicant seeks registration as a Registered Person, the IA, through the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB), must be satisfied that the applicant is fit and proper. This involves a thorough assessment of their background and character. If, during the application process, the appointing Principal or Insurance Agent becomes aware of any new information that could negatively impact the IA’s assessment of the applicant’s fitness and properness, they have a regulatory obligation to promptly inform the IARB. This ensures that the IA has all relevant and up-to-date information to make an informed decision, thereby upholding the integrity of the industry. Failure to report such changes could lead to regulatory action.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) is responsible for overseeing the insurance industry in Hong Kong. When an applicant seeks registration as a Registered Person, the IA, through the Insurance Agents Registration Board (IARB), must be satisfied that the applicant is fit and proper. This involves a thorough assessment of their background and character. If, during the application process, the appointing Principal or Insurance Agent becomes aware of any new information that could negatively impact the IA’s assessment of the applicant’s fitness and properness, they have a regulatory obligation to promptly inform the IARB. This ensures that the IA has all relevant and up-to-date information to make an informed decision, thereby upholding the integrity of the industry. Failure to report such changes could lead to regulatory action.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an analyst is examining the statutory classifications of insurance business in Hong Kong. They are specifically looking at the categories defined under the Insurance Ordinance. Which of the following classes of insurance business is statutorily defined under the General Business category?
Correct
The Insurance Ordinance in Hong Kong categorizes insurance business into Long Term Business and General Business. Long Term Business is further subdivided into various classes, including ‘Life and annuity’ (Class A), ‘Marriage and birth’ (Class B), ‘Linked long term’ (Class C), ‘Permanent health’ (Class D), ‘Tontines’ (Class E), ‘Capital redemption’ (Class F), and three categories of ‘Retirement scheme management’ (Classes G, H, and I). General Business is divided into 17 classes, starting with ‘Accident’ (Class 1) and including ‘Sickness’ (Class 2), ‘Land vehicles’ (Class 3), and property insurance for ‘Railway rolling stock’ (Class 4), ‘Aircraft’ (Class 5), ‘Ships’ (Class 6), and ‘Goods in transit’ (Class 7). The question asks to identify a class that falls under General Business, and ‘Ships’ is correctly identified as Class 6 within this category.
Incorrect
The Insurance Ordinance in Hong Kong categorizes insurance business into Long Term Business and General Business. Long Term Business is further subdivided into various classes, including ‘Life and annuity’ (Class A), ‘Marriage and birth’ (Class B), ‘Linked long term’ (Class C), ‘Permanent health’ (Class D), ‘Tontines’ (Class E), ‘Capital redemption’ (Class F), and three categories of ‘Retirement scheme management’ (Classes G, H, and I). General Business is divided into 17 classes, starting with ‘Accident’ (Class 1) and including ‘Sickness’ (Class 2), ‘Land vehicles’ (Class 3), and property insurance for ‘Railway rolling stock’ (Class 4), ‘Aircraft’ (Class 5), ‘Ships’ (Class 6), and ‘Goods in transit’ (Class 7). The question asks to identify a class that falls under General Business, and ‘Ships’ is correctly identified as Class 6 within this category.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a scenario arises where Mr. Chan, a licensed insurance agent, has allowed his associate, Ms. Lee, to consistently use his company letterhead and business cards for client communications, even though she is not formally appointed as his sub-agent. Mr. Wong, a potential client, receives a proposal from Ms. Lee, which is printed on Mr. Chan’s letterhead and appears to be an official offer from Mr. Chan’s agency. Based on the principles of agency law relevant to the Insurance Ordinance, under which doctrine would Mr. Chan likely be bound by Ms. Lee’s actions if Mr. Wong were to accept the proposal?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Agency by Estoppel’ as defined in contract law within the insurance context. Agency by Estoppel arises when a principal, through their words or actions, leads a third party to believe that another person is their agent. If the third party acts on this representation, the principal is then prevented (estopped) from denying the existence of the agency relationship. This is distinct from apparent authority, where the agent is genuinely appointed but appears to have broader powers than actually granted. In this scenario, Mr. Chan’s consistent allowance of Ms. Lee to present herself as his representative, coupled with his inaction when she uses his company letterhead, creates a representation to potential clients like Mr. Wong. Therefore, Mr. Wong can reasonably assume Ms. Lee has the authority to act on Mr. Chan’s behalf, and Mr. Chan would be estopped from denying this agency.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the concept of ‘Agency by Estoppel’ as defined in contract law within the insurance context. Agency by Estoppel arises when a principal, through their words or actions, leads a third party to believe that another person is their agent. If the third party acts on this representation, the principal is then prevented (estopped) from denying the existence of the agency relationship. This is distinct from apparent authority, where the agent is genuinely appointed but appears to have broader powers than actually granted. In this scenario, Mr. Chan’s consistent allowance of Ms. Lee to present herself as his representative, coupled with his inaction when she uses his company letterhead, creates a representation to potential clients like Mr. Wong. Therefore, Mr. Wong can reasonably assume Ms. Lee has the authority to act on Mr. Chan’s behalf, and Mr. Chan would be estopped from denying this agency.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
When dealing with a complex system that shows occasional vulnerabilities to illicit financial flows, a financial institution operating in Hong Kong must ensure it has established comprehensive internal controls and procedures. Which of the following actions best reflects a financial institution’s obligation under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) to proactively mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing risks?
Correct
The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) imposes specific obligations on Financial Institutions (FIs) to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing. Section 23 of Schedule 2 of the AMLO mandates that FIs must implement robust safeguards to ensure compliance with Parts 2 and 3 of Schedule 2 and to effectively mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing risks. This includes establishing internal controls and procedures. Failure to do so can result in disciplinary actions by Relevant Authorities (RAs), such as public reprimands, remedial orders, or pecuniary penalties. The question tests the understanding of the proactive measures FIs are legally required to take under the AMLO to manage ML/TF risks, rather than reactive reporting or specific penalties for individual employees.
Incorrect
The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) imposes specific obligations on Financial Institutions (FIs) to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing. Section 23 of Schedule 2 of the AMLO mandates that FIs must implement robust safeguards to ensure compliance with Parts 2 and 3 of Schedule 2 and to effectively mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing risks. This includes establishing internal controls and procedures. Failure to do so can result in disciplinary actions by Relevant Authorities (RAs), such as public reprimands, remedial orders, or pecuniary penalties. The question tests the understanding of the proactive measures FIs are legally required to take under the AMLO to manage ML/TF risks, rather than reactive reporting or specific penalties for individual employees.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
During a comprehensive review of a candidate’s application for registration as an insurance intermediary, which of the following qualifications, as stipulated by the Insurance Authority’s Code of Conduct, is a primary indicator of their foundational competence and understanding of insurance principles, assuming no exemptions apply?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) Code of Conduct outlines the criteria for determining if an individual is fit and proper to be registered. Clause 6/31 (ix) specifically states that a person must have passed the relevant papers of the Insurance Intermediaries Qualifying Examination (IIQE) recognized by the IA, unless exempted. This demonstrates a fundamental requirement for demonstrating competence and knowledge in the insurance field, which is a key aspect of being fit and proper. While other factors like compliance history and age are important, the IIQE qualification is a direct measure of the necessary knowledge base.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) Code of Conduct outlines the criteria for determining if an individual is fit and proper to be registered. Clause 6/31 (ix) specifically states that a person must have passed the relevant papers of the Insurance Intermediaries Qualifying Examination (IIQE) recognized by the IA, unless exempted. This demonstrates a fundamental requirement for demonstrating competence and knowledge in the insurance field, which is a key aspect of being fit and proper. While other factors like compliance history and age are important, the IIQE qualification is a direct measure of the necessary knowledge base.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company identified a situation where a policyholder suffered a loss due to the negligence of a third party. The insurer indemnified the policyholder for the full amount of the loss, which was HK$100,000. Subsequently, the policyholder independently recovered HK$60,000 from the negligent third party. Under the principle of subrogation, what is the maximum amount the insurer can claim from the policyholder to recoup their payout?
Correct
Subrogation is a legal principle that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the responsible party bears the cost. The insurer’s right to subrogation is limited to the amount they have paid out as indemnity. Therefore, if the insurer paid HK$50,000 for a loss caused by a third party, they can only recover up to HK$50,000 from that third party, even if the total loss suffered by the insured was greater.
Incorrect
Subrogation is a legal principle that allows an insurer, after paying a claim, to step into the shoes of the insured and pursue any rights the insured may have against a third party responsible for the loss. This prevents the insured from recovering twice for the same loss and ensures that the responsible party bears the cost. The insurer’s right to subrogation is limited to the amount they have paid out as indemnity. Therefore, if the insurer paid HK$50,000 for a loss caused by a third party, they can only recover up to HK$50,000 from that third party, even if the total loss suffered by the insured was greater.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
When assessing an insurance intermediary’s ‘Fitness and Properness’ under Part E of the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents, how is the term ‘Group of Companies’ specifically defined in relation to regulatory oversight?
Correct
The question tests the understanding of the ‘Fitness and Properness’ criteria for registered persons, as outlined in Part E of the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents. Specifically, it focuses on the implications of a group of companies for an insurance intermediary. According to the provided text, for the purposes of clause 22(b) of the Code of Practice, a ‘Group of Companies’ refers to a relationship where companies are subsidiaries of a holding company or are subsidiaries of each other. This definition is crucial for determining if an intermediary operating within such a structure meets the required fitness and properness standards, as the regulatory oversight may extend to the group’s overall structure and governance. Therefore, understanding the definition of a ‘Group of Companies’ in this context is essential for assessing an intermediary’s compliance.
Incorrect
The question tests the understanding of the ‘Fitness and Properness’ criteria for registered persons, as outlined in Part E of the Code of Practice for the Administration of Insurance Agents. Specifically, it focuses on the implications of a group of companies for an insurance intermediary. According to the provided text, for the purposes of clause 22(b) of the Code of Practice, a ‘Group of Companies’ refers to a relationship where companies are subsidiaries of a holding company or are subsidiaries of each other. This definition is crucial for determining if an intermediary operating within such a structure meets the required fitness and properness standards, as the regulatory oversight may extend to the group’s overall structure and governance. Therefore, understanding the definition of a ‘Group of Companies’ in this context is essential for assessing an intermediary’s compliance.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
When an insurance intermediary seeks to strengthen their understanding of ethical conduct and bolster their defenses against potential corrupt practices within the life insurance industry, which of the following resources, developed in collaboration with the Insurance Authority and professional associations, is specifically designed to provide practical guidance and enhance vigilance?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of an insurance intermediary’s role in preventing corruption and fraud, specifically referencing the guidance provided by the ICAC and the Insurance Authority. The ‘Practical Guide on Professional Ethics for Life Insurance Intermediaries’ is a key resource developed in collaboration with these bodies to enhance ethical conduct and vigilance against illicit activities within the life insurance sector. Familiarity with this guide, along with the relevant Ordinance and ICAC’s best practices, is crucial for intermediaries to uphold professional standards and mitigate risks of violations.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of an insurance intermediary’s role in preventing corruption and fraud, specifically referencing the guidance provided by the ICAC and the Insurance Authority. The ‘Practical Guide on Professional Ethics for Life Insurance Intermediaries’ is a key resource developed in collaboration with these bodies to enhance ethical conduct and vigilance against illicit activities within the life insurance sector. Familiarity with this guide, along with the relevant Ordinance and ICAC’s best practices, is crucial for intermediaries to uphold professional standards and mitigate risks of violations.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance policyholder inquires about the continuation of their existing coverage. The insurer informs the policyholder that the renewal process involves a re-evaluation of the risk profile and potential adjustments to the terms. Which of the following best describes the legal nature of this policy renewal in Hong Kong?
Correct
Renewal of an insurance contract, as per the provided syllabus, legally constitutes the establishment of a new agreement. This means that upon renewal, the terms and conditions of the policy are subject to review and potential modification by the insurer, rather than simply continuing the existing contract unchanged. Therefore, an insurer can introduce new underwriting requirements or adjust premiums based on current risk assessments and market conditions.
Incorrect
Renewal of an insurance contract, as per the provided syllabus, legally constitutes the establishment of a new agreement. This means that upon renewal, the terms and conditions of the policy are subject to review and potential modification by the insurer, rather than simply continuing the existing contract unchanged. Therefore, an insurer can introduce new underwriting requirements or adjust premiums based on current risk assessments and market conditions.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
When evaluating potential exposures for an individual or business, a situation is identified where the outcome can only be a loss or no loss, with no prospect of financial gain. Under the principles of risk classification relevant to insurance underwriting in Hong Kong, how would this type of risk be most accurately categorized?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of the fundamental principles of risk management and insurance, specifically the distinction between different types of risks. A ‘pure risk’ is defined as a situation where there is only the possibility of loss or no loss, with no chance of financial gain. Conversely, a ‘speculative risk’ involves the possibility of gain as well as loss. ‘Particular risk’ refers to a risk that affects only an individual or a small group, while ‘fundamental risk’ affects a large segment of society or the economy. Therefore, a risk that presents only the potential for loss, without any possibility of a positive financial outcome, is classified as a pure risk.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of the fundamental principles of risk management and insurance, specifically the distinction between different types of risks. A ‘pure risk’ is defined as a situation where there is only the possibility of loss or no loss, with no chance of financial gain. Conversely, a ‘speculative risk’ involves the possibility of gain as well as loss. ‘Particular risk’ refers to a risk that affects only an individual or a small group, while ‘fundamental risk’ affects a large segment of society or the economy. Therefore, a risk that presents only the potential for loss, without any possibility of a positive financial outcome, is classified as a pure risk.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
During a routine review of client files, an insurance intermediary discovers they previously issued an inflated premium receipt for a private car insurance policy at the client’s request. The intermediary recalls realizing at the time that this receipt might be presented to the client’s employer to facilitate an over-claim of living costs allowance. Even if the intermediary was indifferent to whether the client actually defrauded their employer, under Hong Kong insurance regulations and common law principles concerning aiding and abetting, what is the intermediary’s potential liability in this situation?
Correct
An insurance intermediary has a duty of utmost good faith towards the insurer. This duty extends to not misrepresenting or omitting information that could negatively impact an insurance application, even if doing so might seem beneficial in the short term or is done at the client’s request. Providing an inflated premium receipt, knowing it might be used to deceive an employer for financial gain, constitutes aiding and abetting fraud. The intermediary’s intention to assist or encourage the commission of the crime, even if they are indifferent to the ultimate outcome or the specific method of deception, is sufficient for liability. This aligns with the legal principle that one can be an accessory to a crime by intentionally facilitating its commission, regardless of whether they desire the crime to be completed.
Incorrect
An insurance intermediary has a duty of utmost good faith towards the insurer. This duty extends to not misrepresenting or omitting information that could negatively impact an insurance application, even if doing so might seem beneficial in the short term or is done at the client’s request. Providing an inflated premium receipt, knowing it might be used to deceive an employer for financial gain, constitutes aiding and abetting fraud. The intermediary’s intention to assist or encourage the commission of the crime, even if they are indifferent to the ultimate outcome or the specific method of deception, is sufficient for liability. This aligns with the legal principle that one can be an accessory to a crime by intentionally facilitating its commission, regardless of whether they desire the crime to be completed.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
When an individual intends to engage in the business of insurance broking in Hong Kong, what is the primary regulatory prerequisite they must fulfill, as stipulated by the Insurance Authority (IA)?
Correct
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates specific minimum requirements for individuals seeking to operate as insurance brokers or for bodies of insurance brokers seeking approval. These requirements are designed to ensure competence, financial stability, and ethical conduct within the industry. Section 6.2.3a of the provided text outlines these minimum requirements, which encompass qualifications and experience, capital and net assets, professional indemnity insurance, client account management, and proper bookkeeping. The IA’s approval process involves verifying that applicants meet these standards and are deemed ‘fit and proper’ to conduct insurance broking business. Therefore, any entity or individual acting as an insurance broker must adhere to these IA-specified standards.
Incorrect
The Insurance Authority (IA) mandates specific minimum requirements for individuals seeking to operate as insurance brokers or for bodies of insurance brokers seeking approval. These requirements are designed to ensure competence, financial stability, and ethical conduct within the industry. Section 6.2.3a of the provided text outlines these minimum requirements, which encompass qualifications and experience, capital and net assets, professional indemnity insurance, client account management, and proper bookkeeping. The IA’s approval process involves verifying that applicants meet these standards and are deemed ‘fit and proper’ to conduct insurance broking business. Therefore, any entity or individual acting as an insurance broker must adhere to these IA-specified standards.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a policyholder approaches an insurance agent who has consistently been observed by the policyholder to handle claim settlements and issue policy endorsements for several years. The insurer has never explicitly informed policyholders that this agent’s authority was limited in these specific areas, although the agent’s actual internal mandate was restricted. The policyholder, relying on these past observations and the agent’s conduct, enters into a new endorsement with the agent. Under which legal principle would the insurer likely be bound by the agent’s actions in this situation, even if the agent exceeded their actual authority?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of ‘Apparent Authority’ in agency law, a key concept in insurance. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act, even if that authority wasn’t explicitly granted. This is distinct from agency by estoppel, which applies when a principal allows someone to appear as an agent without any authority at all. In the scenario, the insurer’s consistent allowance of the agent to handle claims and issue policy endorsements, without explicit revocation of this perceived power, creates an appearance of authority in the eyes of the policyholder. Therefore, the insurer would be bound by the agent’s actions under the principle of apparent authority.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of ‘Apparent Authority’ in agency law, a key concept in insurance. Apparent authority arises when a principal’s actions lead a third party to reasonably believe that an agent has the authority to act, even if that authority wasn’t explicitly granted. This is distinct from agency by estoppel, which applies when a principal allows someone to appear as an agent without any authority at all. In the scenario, the insurer’s consistent allowance of the agent to handle claims and issue policy endorsements, without explicit revocation of this perceived power, creates an appearance of authority in the eyes of the policyholder. Therefore, the insurer would be bound by the agent’s actions under the principle of apparent authority.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, an insurance company discovered that a policyholder suffered a loss of HK$80,000. The insurer, adhering to the policy’s terms, indemnified the policyholder for HK$50,000, reflecting a specific deductible. Subsequently, it was determined that a third party was solely responsible for the loss. The insurer, acting under subrogation rights, pursued the negligent third party and successfully recovered HK$70,000. Under the principles of subrogation and considering the partial indemnity provided, what is the maximum amount the insurer can claim from this recovery?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of subrogation, specifically how it operates when an insurer has only partially indemnified a loss due to policy limitations. According to the principles of subrogation, if an insurer pays only a portion of the loss (e.g., due to a deductible or a policy limit), and the insured recovers an amount from a third party that covers the entire loss, the insurer is entitled to a proportionate share of that recovery. The insured retains any amount recovered that exceeds the total loss, and if the insurer’s recovery is less than their payout, they can claim the shortfall from the insured. In this scenario, the insurer paid HK$50,000 of a HK$80,000 loss. The third party’s recovery is HK$70,000. The insurer is entitled to the lesser of their payout (HK$50,000) or their proportionate share of the recovery. Their proportionate share of the HK$70,000 recovery, based on the HK$80,000 loss, would be (HK$50,000 / HK$80,000) * HK$70,000 = HK$43,750. Since HK$43,750 is less than the HK$50,000 the insurer paid, the insurer can recover HK$43,750. The insured would then receive the remaining HK$70,000 – HK$43,750 = HK$26,250 from the third party, which, when added to the insurer’s payout, still leaves the insured with an unreimbursed loss of HK$80,000 – HK$50,000 – HK$26,250 = HK$3,750. Therefore, the insurer can recover HK$43,750.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of subrogation, specifically how it operates when an insurer has only partially indemnified a loss due to policy limitations. According to the principles of subrogation, if an insurer pays only a portion of the loss (e.g., due to a deductible or a policy limit), and the insured recovers an amount from a third party that covers the entire loss, the insurer is entitled to a proportionate share of that recovery. The insured retains any amount recovered that exceeds the total loss, and if the insurer’s recovery is less than their payout, they can claim the shortfall from the insured. In this scenario, the insurer paid HK$50,000 of a HK$80,000 loss. The third party’s recovery is HK$70,000. The insurer is entitled to the lesser of their payout (HK$50,000) or their proportionate share of the recovery. Their proportionate share of the HK$70,000 recovery, based on the HK$80,000 loss, would be (HK$50,000 / HK$80,000) * HK$70,000 = HK$43,750. Since HK$43,750 is less than the HK$50,000 the insurer paid, the insurer can recover HK$43,750. The insured would then receive the remaining HK$70,000 – HK$43,750 = HK$26,250 from the third party, which, when added to the insurer’s payout, still leaves the insured with an unreimbursed loss of HK$80,000 – HK$50,000 – HK$26,250 = HK$3,750. Therefore, the insurer can recover HK$43,750.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
During a comprehensive review of a process that needs improvement, a financial institution discovers that its internal controls for identifying and mitigating potential money laundering and terrorist financing risks are not as robust as they could be. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing (Financial Institutions) Ordinance (AMLO), what is the primary obligation of the financial institution in such a situation?
Correct
The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing (Financial Institutions) Ordinance (AMLO) imposes specific obligations on Financial Institutions (FIs) regarding customer due diligence and record-keeping. Section 23 of Schedule 2 of the AMLO mandates that FIs must implement robust safeguards to prevent breaches of Parts 2 and 3 of Schedule 2 and to mitigate risks associated with money laundering and terrorist financing. Failure to take all reasonable measures to ensure these safeguards exist and to mitigate risks can lead to disciplinary actions by Relevant Authorities (RAs), including pecuniary penalties. The question tests the understanding of the proactive measures FIs are legally required to undertake to manage ML/TF risks, as stipulated by the AMLO, rather than reactive reporting or specific customer interaction protocols.
Incorrect
The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing (Financial Institutions) Ordinance (AMLO) imposes specific obligations on Financial Institutions (FIs) regarding customer due diligence and record-keeping. Section 23 of Schedule 2 of the AMLO mandates that FIs must implement robust safeguards to prevent breaches of Parts 2 and 3 of Schedule 2 and to mitigate risks associated with money laundering and terrorist financing. Failure to take all reasonable measures to ensure these safeguards exist and to mitigate risks can lead to disciplinary actions by Relevant Authorities (RAs), including pecuniary penalties. The question tests the understanding of the proactive measures FIs are legally required to undertake to manage ML/TF risks, as stipulated by the AMLO, rather than reactive reporting or specific customer interaction protocols.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
An individual is licensed as an insurance agent and also holds a license as a travel agent. They intend to offer insurance products specifically related to travel. To lawfully conduct this restricted scope travel insurance business, what additional regulatory compliance is mandated by the Code for this insurance agent?
Correct
The scenario describes an insurance agent who is also licensed as a travel agent and wishes to engage in restricted scope travel insurance business. According to the provided text, an insurance agent engaging in restricted scope travel business must be licensed as a travel agent under the Travel Agents Ordinance. This requirement is explicitly stated in section 6.2.2(f)(x) of the Code. Therefore, the agent must possess this additional license to legally conduct this specific type of business.
Incorrect
The scenario describes an insurance agent who is also licensed as a travel agent and wishes to engage in restricted scope travel insurance business. According to the provided text, an insurance agent engaging in restricted scope travel business must be licensed as a travel agent under the Travel Agents Ordinance. This requirement is explicitly stated in section 6.2.2(f)(x) of the Code. Therefore, the agent must possess this additional license to legally conduct this specific type of business.