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Question 1 of 28
1. Question
Ms. Wong, the human resources manager of a Hong Kong-based trading company, is reviewing the firm’s MPF contribution procedures to ensure they align with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). She is evaluating how different payment methods affect the ‘date of payment’ for their monthly contributions. Which of the following statements regarding the timing of contributions are accurate?
I. If the contribution is sent by post, it is considered paid on the date the cheque would normally be delivered by the postal service.
II. For payments made via direct credit, the contribution is considered paid on the date the MPF scheme’s bank account is credited.
III. When using direct debit, the employer’s contribution is considered paid on the date the trustee issues the direct debit instruction to the bank.
IV. If a payment cheque is deposited at a bank branch but subsequently bounces, the contribution is still considered paid on the deposit date if the funds are replaced within two business days.Correct
Correct: Statement I is correct because for payments sent by post, the MPFSO considers the contribution paid on the date the cheque would normally be delivered by the postal service. Statement II is also correct as direct credit payments are only deemed paid once the funds have been successfully credited to the MPF scheme’s specific bank account, requiring employers to account for bank processing times.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because for an employer (unlike a self-employed person), the contribution date for direct debit is determined by the date the trustee receives the remittance statement, not the date the instruction is issued. Statement IV is incorrect because if a cheque is bounced due to insufficient funds, the contribution is treated as not having been paid at all; there is no provision for a grace period that maintains the original deposit date.
**Takeaway:** Compliance with MPF contribution deadlines depends heavily on the chosen payment method, as the ‘deemed paid’ date varies between physical delivery, electronic transfers, and automated debits. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statement I is correct because for payments sent by post, the MPFSO considers the contribution paid on the date the cheque would normally be delivered by the postal service. Statement II is also correct as direct credit payments are only deemed paid once the funds have been successfully credited to the MPF scheme’s specific bank account, requiring employers to account for bank processing times.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because for an employer (unlike a self-employed person), the contribution date for direct debit is determined by the date the trustee receives the remittance statement, not the date the instruction is issued. Statement IV is incorrect because if a cheque is bounced due to insufficient funds, the contribution is treated as not having been paid at all; there is no provision for a grace period that maintains the original deposit date.
**Takeaway:** Compliance with MPF contribution deadlines depends heavily on the chosen payment method, as the ‘deemed paid’ date varies between physical delivery, electronic transfers, and automated debits. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
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Question 2 of 28
2. Question
The Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) System was established as a mandatory retirement protection scheme for the workforce in Hong Kong. Which of the following are the core characteristics of this system?
(i) Employment-based
(ii) Fully-funded
(iii) Privately-managed
(iv) Defined benefitCorrect
Correct: The MPF System is fundamentally designed around three key pillars: it is employment-based, meaning it covers the majority of the working population through their employment or self-employment; it is fully-funded, meaning that contributions are specifically set aside and invested to meet future retirement needs; and it is privately-managed, meaning that the schemes are operated by approved trustees and service providers from the private sector. Therefore, the core characteristics are (i), (ii), and (iii) only.
**Incorrect:** The MPF System is a defined contribution (DC) scheme, not a defined benefit (DB) scheme. In a defined contribution system, the final benefits are determined by the total amount of contributions made plus any investment gains or losses. In contrast, a defined benefit scheme guarantees a specific payout based on a formula (such as years of service and final salary). Because the MPF does not guarantee a specific benefit amount, statement (iv) is incorrect.
**Takeaway:** A thorough understanding of the MPF System requires recognizing it as a privately-managed, employment-based, and fully-funded defined contribution framework, which distinguishes it from pay-as-you-go or government-managed pension models.
Incorrect
Correct: The MPF System is fundamentally designed around three key pillars: it is employment-based, meaning it covers the majority of the working population through their employment or self-employment; it is fully-funded, meaning that contributions are specifically set aside and invested to meet future retirement needs; and it is privately-managed, meaning that the schemes are operated by approved trustees and service providers from the private sector. Therefore, the core characteristics are (i), (ii), and (iii) only.
**Incorrect:** The MPF System is a defined contribution (DC) scheme, not a defined benefit (DB) scheme. In a defined contribution system, the final benefits are determined by the total amount of contributions made plus any investment gains or losses. In contrast, a defined benefit scheme guarantees a specific payout based on a formula (such as years of service and final salary). Because the MPF does not guarantee a specific benefit amount, statement (iv) is incorrect.
**Takeaway:** A thorough understanding of the MPF System requires recognizing it as a privately-managed, employment-based, and fully-funded defined contribution framework, which distinguishes it from pay-as-you-go or government-managed pension models.
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Question 3 of 28
3. Question
A financial consultant is explaining the structure of Hong Kong’s retirement protection to a group of new residents. When discussing the World Bank’s five-pillar framework, how should the consultant categorize the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system?
Correct
In both the original three-pillar and the expanded five-pillar frameworks established by the World Bank, the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system is classified as the second pillar. This pillar is specifically defined as a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system that is employment-based, meaning it relies on the contributions of both employers and employees to build a retirement fund managed by private entities. Other pillars serve different functions: Pillar Zero represents non-contributory, publicly-financed social safety nets; Pillar One typically refers to a public contributory system; Pillar Three consists of voluntary personal savings; and Pillar Four involves informal support such as family assistance or non-financial assets like home ownership. The MPF does not fall into these categories because it requires mandatory participation and is funded by individual accounts rather than general taxation or voluntary choice alone. Recognizing the MPF as a Pillar Two system is fundamental to understanding Hong Kong’s retirement strategy, which seeks to balance individual responsibility, private sector efficiency, and a mandatory framework to address the challenges of an ageing population.
Incorrect
In both the original three-pillar and the expanded five-pillar frameworks established by the World Bank, the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system is classified as the second pillar. This pillar is specifically defined as a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system that is employment-based, meaning it relies on the contributions of both employers and employees to build a retirement fund managed by private entities. Other pillars serve different functions: Pillar Zero represents non-contributory, publicly-financed social safety nets; Pillar One typically refers to a public contributory system; Pillar Three consists of voluntary personal savings; and Pillar Four involves informal support such as family assistance or non-financial assets like home ownership. The MPF does not fall into these categories because it requires mandatory participation and is funded by individual accounts rather than general taxation or voluntary choice alone. Recognizing the MPF as a Pillar Two system is fundamental to understanding Hong Kong’s retirement strategy, which seeks to balance individual responsibility, private sector efficiency, and a mandatory framework to address the challenges of an ageing population.
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Question 4 of 28
4. Question
A financial consultant is advising a multinational corporation on the regulatory nature of the Hong Kong Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) System. Regarding the World Bank’s five-pillar framework and the specific characteristics of the MPF, which of the following statements are correct?
I. The MPF System represents Pillar Two, which is a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system.
II. As a privately-managed system, MPF schemes are operated by private entities through market mechanisms to promote efficiency.
III. The MPF System is categorized as a defined benefit system where the ultimate retirement payout is fixed regardless of investment performance.
IV. Mandatory contributions made by employers and employees are fully and immediately vested in the scheme member.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV are accurate descriptions of the MPF System within the World Bank’s framework. The MPF is classified as Pillar Two because it is a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system. It relies on private sector trustees and market competition to drive efficiency (unlike the publicly-managed Pillar One). Additionally, a core characteristic of the MPF System is that all mandatory contributions are fully and immediately vested in the scheme member upon payment into the scheme.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because the MPF System is a “defined contribution” (DC) scheme, not a “defined benefit” (DB) scheme. In the MPF System, the amount of accrued benefits depends on the total contributions made and the investment returns earned, rather than a fixed payout formula based on years of service or salary.
**Takeaway:** The MPF System serves as the second pillar of Hong Kong’s retirement protection, functioning as an employment-based, privately-managed, and defined contribution system where investment risks and rewards are reflected in the member’s individual account. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV are accurate descriptions of the MPF System within the World Bank’s framework. The MPF is classified as Pillar Two because it is a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system. It relies on private sector trustees and market competition to drive efficiency (unlike the publicly-managed Pillar One). Additionally, a core characteristic of the MPF System is that all mandatory contributions are fully and immediately vested in the scheme member upon payment into the scheme.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because the MPF System is a “defined contribution” (DC) scheme, not a “defined benefit” (DB) scheme. In the MPF System, the amount of accrued benefits depends on the total contributions made and the investment returns earned, rather than a fixed payout formula based on years of service or salary.
**Takeaway:** The MPF System serves as the second pillar of Hong Kong’s retirement protection, functioning as an employment-based, privately-managed, and defined contribution system where investment risks and rewards are reflected in the member’s individual account. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
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Question 5 of 28
5. Question
A compliance officer at an MPF approved trustee is reviewing internal procedures for handling dormant accounts and employer reimbursement claims. According to the MPF legislation and guidelines, which of the following statements are correct?
I. If a benefit payment cheque is not cashed within its 6-month validity period and the trustee cannot locate the member for another 6 months thereafter, the benefits are treated as unclaimed.
II. To fulfill the requirement of attempting to locate a member, the trustee must make at least three attempts at different times and dates within a single month via known contact means.
III. When an employer pays a Severance Payment to an employee, they may apply for reimbursement from the trustee specifically from the portion of accrued benefits derived from employer contributions.
IV. Upon being classified as unclaimed benefits, the funds are transferred to the MPFA and no longer remain the property of the scheme member.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and III accurately reflect the regulatory framework for unclaimed benefits and the offsetting mechanism. Accrued benefits are classified as unclaimed if a cheque remains unpresented for the 6-month “Specified Period” and the trustee is unable to locate the member during the subsequent 6-month period. The trustee is required to perform specific due diligence, including making three contact attempts within one month. Furthermore, under the Employment Ordinance and MPFSO, employers are permitted to offset Long Service Payments (LSP) or Severance Payments (SP) against the accrued benefits derived specifically from the employer’s contributions.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because unclaimed benefits continue to vest in the scheme member. While the MPFA maintains a centralized Unclaimed Benefits Register to assist the public in searching for lost accounts, the benefits themselves remain within the scheme and the member retains their legal right to those funds.
**Takeaway:** The classification of unclaimed benefits requires a two-stage 6-month process and documented contact attempts, while the offsetting of statutory employment payments is strictly restricted to the employer-funded portion of the MPF account. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and III accurately reflect the regulatory framework for unclaimed benefits and the offsetting mechanism. Accrued benefits are classified as unclaimed if a cheque remains unpresented for the 6-month “Specified Period” and the trustee is unable to locate the member during the subsequent 6-month period. The trustee is required to perform specific due diligence, including making three contact attempts within one month. Furthermore, under the Employment Ordinance and MPFSO, employers are permitted to offset Long Service Payments (LSP) or Severance Payments (SP) against the accrued benefits derived specifically from the employer’s contributions.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because unclaimed benefits continue to vest in the scheme member. While the MPFA maintains a centralized Unclaimed Benefits Register to assist the public in searching for lost accounts, the benefits themselves remain within the scheme and the member retains their legal right to those funds.
**Takeaway:** The classification of unclaimed benefits requires a two-stage 6-month process and documented contact attempts, while the offsetting of statutory employment payments is strictly restricted to the employer-funded portion of the MPF account. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
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Question 6 of 28
6. Question
An MPF subsidiary intermediary is advising a client on a scheme transfer that will result in the intermediary’s firm receiving a commission from the target trustee. Which of the following best describes the intermediary’s obligations regarding conflict disclosure and record-keeping under the MPF Guidelines?
Correct
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and the related Guidelines, registered intermediaries are required to use their best endeavors to avoid conflicts of interest. When a material interest exists—such as receiving a monetary benefit for a sale—the intermediary must disclose this conflict to the client. Additionally, the intermediary must document any regulated advice provided, including the underlying rationale, and obtain the client’s signature on this document. The principal intermediary is then responsible for retaining the original record for a minimum period of seven years to ensure it is available for regulatory inspection.
**Incorrect:** It is incorrect to suggest that records should only be kept for five years, as the regulatory standard is seven years. Furthermore, registered intermediaries are strictly prohibited from accepting cash payments from clients; any payments must be made by crossed cheques payable directly to the approved trustee or the registered scheme. It is also a misconception that disclosure of fees or ongoing cost illustrations is optional or limited to specific client types, as intermediaries should refer clients to all key disclosure information, including the fee table and fund expense ratio, to ensure informed decision-making.
**Takeaway:** Registered intermediaries must maintain high standards of transparency by disclosing conflicts of interest, strictly adhering to the seven-year record-keeping rule, and ensuring all client payments are handled via crossed cheques to the trustee.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and the related Guidelines, registered intermediaries are required to use their best endeavors to avoid conflicts of interest. When a material interest exists—such as receiving a monetary benefit for a sale—the intermediary must disclose this conflict to the client. Additionally, the intermediary must document any regulated advice provided, including the underlying rationale, and obtain the client’s signature on this document. The principal intermediary is then responsible for retaining the original record for a minimum period of seven years to ensure it is available for regulatory inspection.
**Incorrect:** It is incorrect to suggest that records should only be kept for five years, as the regulatory standard is seven years. Furthermore, registered intermediaries are strictly prohibited from accepting cash payments from clients; any payments must be made by crossed cheques payable directly to the approved trustee or the registered scheme. It is also a misconception that disclosure of fees or ongoing cost illustrations is optional or limited to specific client types, as intermediaries should refer clients to all key disclosure information, including the fee table and fund expense ratio, to ensure informed decision-making.
**Takeaway:** Registered intermediaries must maintain high standards of transparency by disclosing conflicts of interest, strictly adhering to the seven-year record-keeping rule, and ensuring all client payments are handled via crossed cheques to the trustee.
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Question 7 of 28
7. Question
Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), which of the following parties are NOT prohibited from giving “regulated advice” regarding a material decision, such as the timing of a claim for accrued benefits?
I. A solicitor giving advice that is wholly incidental to their legal practice.
II. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) while performing a function under the Ordinance.
III. A company giving advice to its wholly owned subsidiary.
IV. A certified public accountant giving advice that is wholly incidental to their accounting practice.Correct
Correct: Under Section 34M of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), specific exceptions are provided for the prohibition against carrying on regulated activities. These exceptions include solicitors and certified public accountants when the advice is wholly incidental to their professional practice, the MPFA when performing its statutory functions, and companies providing advice within the same corporate group, such as to a wholly owned subsidiary. Consequently, the individuals and entities described in I, II, III, and IV are all exempt from the prohibition. I, II, III, and IV.
**Incorrect:** Options that only include the professionals (solicitors and accountants) or only include the MPFA and corporate entities are incorrect because they fail to recognize the full scope of exemptions provided under Section 34M. The law explicitly protects all these categories to ensure that regulatory functions, professional services, and internal corporate communications are not unduly hindered by the general prohibition on unlicensed regulated activities.
**Takeaway:** The MPFSO balances the protection of scheme members with practical necessity by exempting the MPFA, specific professionals, and corporate groups from the need for intermediary registration when providing incidental or internal regulated advice regarding material decisions.
Incorrect
Correct: Under Section 34M of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), specific exceptions are provided for the prohibition against carrying on regulated activities. These exceptions include solicitors and certified public accountants when the advice is wholly incidental to their professional practice, the MPFA when performing its statutory functions, and companies providing advice within the same corporate group, such as to a wholly owned subsidiary. Consequently, the individuals and entities described in I, II, III, and IV are all exempt from the prohibition. I, II, III, and IV.
**Incorrect:** Options that only include the professionals (solicitors and accountants) or only include the MPFA and corporate entities are incorrect because they fail to recognize the full scope of exemptions provided under Section 34M. The law explicitly protects all these categories to ensure that regulatory functions, professional services, and internal corporate communications are not unduly hindered by the general prohibition on unlicensed regulated activities.
**Takeaway:** The MPFSO balances the protection of scheme members with practical necessity by exempting the MPFA, specific professionals, and corporate groups from the need for intermediary registration when providing incidental or internal regulated advice regarding material decisions.
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Question 8 of 28
8. Question
When establishing internal control procedures to comply with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, a principal intermediary such as a licensed insurance brokerage is specifically required to:
Correct
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, specifically Section 34ZL(3), a principal intermediary is legally required to ensure that its designated responsible officer is granted sufficient authority within the corporate structure. Furthermore, the firm must provide that officer with the necessary resources and support to effectively oversee the regulated activities of the firm and its subsidiary intermediaries.
**Incorrect:** While firms must maintain records of training undertaken by subsidiary intermediaries, the guidelines specify a minimum retention period of three years, not seven. The duty to supervise and monitor the compliance of subsidiary intermediaries rests with the principal intermediary itself and cannot be shifted to the MPFA. Additionally, while telephone marketing requires the maintenance of call logs and compliance guidelines, there is no regulatory requirement to seek individual approval from the SFC for every marketing call made.
**Takeaway:** A principal intermediary’s compliance framework must empower the responsible officer with both authority and resources while maintaining robust oversight and record-keeping for its subsidiary intermediaries for at least three years.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, specifically Section 34ZL(3), a principal intermediary is legally required to ensure that its designated responsible officer is granted sufficient authority within the corporate structure. Furthermore, the firm must provide that officer with the necessary resources and support to effectively oversee the regulated activities of the firm and its subsidiary intermediaries.
**Incorrect:** While firms must maintain records of training undertaken by subsidiary intermediaries, the guidelines specify a minimum retention period of three years, not seven. The duty to supervise and monitor the compliance of subsidiary intermediaries rests with the principal intermediary itself and cannot be shifted to the MPFA. Additionally, while telephone marketing requires the maintenance of call logs and compliance guidelines, there is no regulatory requirement to seek individual approval from the SFC for every marketing call made.
**Takeaway:** A principal intermediary’s compliance framework must empower the responsible officer with both authority and resources while maintaining robust oversight and record-keeping for its subsidiary intermediaries for at least three years.
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Question 9 of 28
9. Question
A registered intermediary is currently under investigation by the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) regarding suspected misconduct. During the process, the intermediary intentionally provides misleading records to the investigators to conceal certain transactions. Which of the following statements regarding the potential consequences under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO) are correct?
I. The MPFA may order the intermediary to pay a pecuniary penalty not exceeding the greater of HK$10,000,000 or three times the profit gained or loss avoided.
II. If convicted on indictment for providing false information with intent to defraud, the person is liable to a fine of HK$1,000,000 and imprisonment for 7 years.
III. The MPFA is legally required to issue a private reprimand rather than a public one if the intermediary has no prior record of regulatory breaches.
IV. The MPFA has the power to revoke the intermediary’s registration and disqualify them from being registered for a period it determines.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV accurately reflect the regulatory framework under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). The MPFA has the authority to impose a pecuniary penalty of up to HK$10,000,000 or three times the profit gained or loss avoided, whichever is greater. For criminal offences involving the provision of false or misleading information with an intent to defraud during an investigation, the maximum penalty on conviction on indictment includes a fine of HK$1,000,000 and imprisonment for 7 years. Additionally, the MPFA may exercise disciplinary powers to revoke an intermediary’s registration and disqualify them for a specified period.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because the MPFSO grants the MPFA the discretion to issue either a public or a private reprimand based on the nature of the non-compliance. There is no statutory requirement that limits the MPFA to only private reprimands for first-time offenders; the choice of reprimand depends on the severity and circumstances of the case.
**Takeaway:** Regulated persons under the MPF system face severe dual consequences for investigative misconduct: criminal prosecution (potentially leading to 7 years’ imprisonment for fraud) and administrative disciplinary orders (including heavy fines and loss of registration). Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV accurately reflect the regulatory framework under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). The MPFA has the authority to impose a pecuniary penalty of up to HK$10,000,000 or three times the profit gained or loss avoided, whichever is greater. For criminal offences involving the provision of false or misleading information with an intent to defraud during an investigation, the maximum penalty on conviction on indictment includes a fine of HK$1,000,000 and imprisonment for 7 years. Additionally, the MPFA may exercise disciplinary powers to revoke an intermediary’s registration and disqualify them for a specified period.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because the MPFSO grants the MPFA the discretion to issue either a public or a private reprimand based on the nature of the non-compliance. There is no statutory requirement that limits the MPFA to only private reprimands for first-time offenders; the choice of reprimand depends on the severity and circumstances of the case.
**Takeaway:** Regulated persons under the MPF system face severe dual consequences for investigative misconduct: criminal prosecution (potentially leading to 7 years’ imprisonment for fraud) and administrative disciplinary orders (including heavy fines and loss of registration). Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
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Question 10 of 28
10. Question
A new staff member, Mr. Ho, commenced his employment at a local firm on February 12th with a fixed monthly salary of $22,000. The company utilizes the calendar month as its standard wage period. Regarding the mandatory MPF contributions for the month of March, which of the following best describes the obligations of Mr. Ho and his employer?
Correct
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system, employers are required to make mandatory contributions for their relevant employees starting from the very first day of employment. However, regular employees (those who are not casual employees) are entitled to a “contribution holiday,” which means they are not required to make their 5% contribution for the first 30 days of employment and the first incomplete wage period that follows. Since the employee’s 30th day of employment falls in March, and the first complete wage period starting after that 30-day period begins on April 1st, the employee is exempt from contributing for the month of March. The employer, however, must contribute 5% of the employee’s relevant income for that month.
**Incorrect:** The statement that both parties must contribute is incorrect because it fails to account for the statutory contribution holiday granted to the employee. The suggestion that neither party is required to contribute is wrong because the employer’s obligation is immediate and does not include a holiday period. The claim that only the employee contributes while the employer is exempt is a complete reversal of the legal requirements, as the holiday benefit applies exclusively to the employee’s portion of the contribution.
**Takeaway:** While employers must begin MPF contributions from an employee’s first day of service, regular employees are exempt from making contributions during a ‘contribution holiday’ that covers the first 30 days of employment plus the remainder of the wage period in which that 30th day falls.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system, employers are required to make mandatory contributions for their relevant employees starting from the very first day of employment. However, regular employees (those who are not casual employees) are entitled to a “contribution holiday,” which means they are not required to make their 5% contribution for the first 30 days of employment and the first incomplete wage period that follows. Since the employee’s 30th day of employment falls in March, and the first complete wage period starting after that 30-day period begins on April 1st, the employee is exempt from contributing for the month of March. The employer, however, must contribute 5% of the employee’s relevant income for that month.
**Incorrect:** The statement that both parties must contribute is incorrect because it fails to account for the statutory contribution holiday granted to the employee. The suggestion that neither party is required to contribute is wrong because the employer’s obligation is immediate and does not include a holiday period. The claim that only the employee contributes while the employer is exempt is a complete reversal of the legal requirements, as the holiday benefit applies exclusively to the employee’s portion of the contribution.
**Takeaway:** While employers must begin MPF contributions from an employee’s first day of service, regular employees are exempt from making contributions during a ‘contribution holiday’ that covers the first 30 days of employment plus the remainder of the wage period in which that 30th day falls.
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Question 11 of 28
11. Question
A subsidiary intermediary is assisting a client with an MPF scheme enrollment. Due to a tight schedule, the client offers to sign the enrollment form while it is still blank, instructing the intermediary to fill in the fund choices later based on their previous verbal discussion. To comply with the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct, how should the intermediary handle this request?
Correct
Correct: According to the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct (VI.2), a registered intermediary must ensure that any form intended for a client’s signature is duly completed in all material respects before the client signs it. This requirement is fundamental to acting honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of the client, as it prevents the risk of unauthorized or inaccurate information being submitted under the client’s name.
**Incorrect:** Accepting a signed blank form is a direct violation of conduct standards, even if a copy is provided later or if the intermediary attempts to authenticate the details themselves. Furthermore, any alterations made to a completed form must be initialed by the client (or otherwise authenticated by the client) rather than the intermediary. Regarding record-keeping, the principal intermediary is required to maintain copies of such forms for a minimum of seven years, not five years.
**Takeaway:** To maintain professional integrity and protect client interests, all material information on MPF-related forms must be finalized prior to obtaining a client’s signature, and these records must be retained for at least seven years.
Incorrect
Correct: According to the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct (VI.2), a registered intermediary must ensure that any form intended for a client’s signature is duly completed in all material respects before the client signs it. This requirement is fundamental to acting honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of the client, as it prevents the risk of unauthorized or inaccurate information being submitted under the client’s name.
**Incorrect:** Accepting a signed blank form is a direct violation of conduct standards, even if a copy is provided later or if the intermediary attempts to authenticate the details themselves. Furthermore, any alterations made to a completed form must be initialed by the client (or otherwise authenticated by the client) rather than the intermediary. Regarding record-keeping, the principal intermediary is required to maintain copies of such forms for a minimum of seven years, not five years.
**Takeaway:** To maintain professional integrity and protect client interests, all material information on MPF-related forms must be finalized prior to obtaining a client’s signature, and these records must be retained for at least seven years.
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Question 12 of 28
12. Question
Ms. Lee, a risk-averse MPF scheme member, is considering moving her accrued benefits into an MPF Conservative Fund. She is concerned about how administrative fees might impact her account balance during periods of low interest rates. According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes (General) Regulation, which of the following best describes the restriction on deducting administrative expenses from an MPF Conservative Fund?
Correct
The MPF Conservative Fund is subject to specific regulatory safeguards regarding fee deductions. Administrative expenses, which include trustee, custodian, investment management, and administration fees, cannot be deducted from the fund in any given month unless the actual investment earnings of the fund for that specific month exceed the earnings calculated based on the prescribed savings rate declared by the MPFA. This mechanism ensures that the fund’s net return remains competitive with basic bank savings rates during periods of low performance. Other regulatory interpretations are incorrect because they fail to recognize the specific benchmark used for fee deductions. It is not enough for the fund to simply achieve a positive return or a return higher than inflation; the benchmark is strictly the MPFA’s prescribed savings rate. Furthermore, while the fund is designed to be conservative, administrative fees are not entirely prohibited; they are merely conditional upon meeting the performance threshold relative to the savings rate. An MPF Conservative Fund serves as a low-risk investment option where the deduction of administrative expenses is performance-linked to the MPFA’s prescribed savings rate, providing a layer of protection for scheme members’ capital in low-interest environments.
Incorrect
The MPF Conservative Fund is subject to specific regulatory safeguards regarding fee deductions. Administrative expenses, which include trustee, custodian, investment management, and administration fees, cannot be deducted from the fund in any given month unless the actual investment earnings of the fund for that specific month exceed the earnings calculated based on the prescribed savings rate declared by the MPFA. This mechanism ensures that the fund’s net return remains competitive with basic bank savings rates during periods of low performance. Other regulatory interpretations are incorrect because they fail to recognize the specific benchmark used for fee deductions. It is not enough for the fund to simply achieve a positive return or a return higher than inflation; the benchmark is strictly the MPFA’s prescribed savings rate. Furthermore, while the fund is designed to be conservative, administrative fees are not entirely prohibited; they are merely conditional upon meeting the performance threshold relative to the savings rate. An MPF Conservative Fund serves as a low-risk investment option where the deduction of administrative expenses is performance-linked to the MPFA’s prescribed savings rate, providing a layer of protection for scheme members’ capital in low-interest environments.
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Question 13 of 28
13. Question
A subsidiary intermediary has failed to complete the mandatory continuing training specified by the MPFA within the required timeframe. After the individual fails to comply with a subsequent written notice from the MPFA requiring completion of the training, what regulatory actions may the MPFA take?
Correct
Correct: According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, when a subsidiary intermediary fails to complete the required continuing training within the specified timeframe, the MPFA may issue a written notice requiring completion within a minimum of 30 days. If the individual fails to comply with this notice, the MPFA is empowered to suspend their registration. If the training requirement remains unfulfilled for a further 30 days after the suspension has taken effect, the MPFA may then proceed to revoke the individual’s registration.
**Incorrect:** Immediate revocation of registration is not the first step; the regulatory framework requires a notice period and a suspension phase before revocation can occur. Furthermore, while Frontline Regulators (FRs) are responsible for supervising and investigating intermediaries, the MPFA is the sole authority designated to impose disciplinary sanctions such as suspension or revocation. Automatic termination without a formal notice and suspension process is not consistent with the procedural requirements for training non-compliance.
**Takeaway:** The enforcement process for continuing training requirements follows a structured escalation: a formal notice to comply, followed by suspension of registration, and ultimately revocation if the non-compliance is not rectified within 30 days of the suspension.
Incorrect
Correct: According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, when a subsidiary intermediary fails to complete the required continuing training within the specified timeframe, the MPFA may issue a written notice requiring completion within a minimum of 30 days. If the individual fails to comply with this notice, the MPFA is empowered to suspend their registration. If the training requirement remains unfulfilled for a further 30 days after the suspension has taken effect, the MPFA may then proceed to revoke the individual’s registration.
**Incorrect:** Immediate revocation of registration is not the first step; the regulatory framework requires a notice period and a suspension phase before revocation can occur. Furthermore, while Frontline Regulators (FRs) are responsible for supervising and investigating intermediaries, the MPFA is the sole authority designated to impose disciplinary sanctions such as suspension or revocation. Automatic termination without a formal notice and suspension process is not consistent with the procedural requirements for training non-compliance.
**Takeaway:** The enforcement process for continuing training requirements follows a structured escalation: a formal notice to comply, followed by suspension of registration, and ultimately revocation if the non-compliance is not rectified within 30 days of the suspension.
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Question 14 of 28
14. Question
A registered principal intermediary is preparing an application to the MPFA for the approval of a senior manager as a responsible officer. In accordance with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), which of the following statements regarding the requirements for approval and the powers of the MPFA are accurate?
I. The individual must be a subsidiary intermediary attached to the principal intermediary.
II. The individual must not have had an approval as a responsible officer revoked by the MPFA within one year immediately before the application date.
III. The MPFA is only permitted to impose conditions on the approval at the time the initial application is granted.
IV. The individual must have sufficient authority within the principal intermediary and be provided with sufficient resources to carry out their responsibilities.Correct
Correct: According to Section 34W of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), an individual seeking approval as a responsible officer (RO) must already be a subsidiary intermediary attached to the principal intermediary. The applicant must also demonstrate that the individual has sufficient authority and will be provided with the necessary resources and support to perform their specified responsibilities. Furthermore, a statutory “look-back” period applies, requiring that the individual has not had an RO approval revoked by the MPFA within the one year immediately preceding the application date.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because Section 34X of the MPFSO provides the MPFA with broad powers to impose, amend, or revoke conditions on an intermediary’s registration or an officer’s approval at any time. This power is not limited to the initial application phase; the MPFA may impose new conditions even after a person has been registered or approved if it considers such action appropriate.
**Takeaway:** Approval for an MPF Responsible Officer requires the individual to be an attached subsidiary intermediary with sufficient corporate authority and a clean regulatory record regarding RO revocations for the past 12 months. The MPFA maintains continuous oversight through its power to modify regulatory conditions at any stage of the approval’s lifecycle. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: According to Section 34W of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), an individual seeking approval as a responsible officer (RO) must already be a subsidiary intermediary attached to the principal intermediary. The applicant must also demonstrate that the individual has sufficient authority and will be provided with the necessary resources and support to perform their specified responsibilities. Furthermore, a statutory “look-back” period applies, requiring that the individual has not had an RO approval revoked by the MPFA within the one year immediately preceding the application date.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because Section 34X of the MPFSO provides the MPFA with broad powers to impose, amend, or revoke conditions on an intermediary’s registration or an officer’s approval at any time. This power is not limited to the initial application phase; the MPFA may impose new conditions even after a person has been registered or approved if it considers such action appropriate.
**Takeaway:** Approval for an MPF Responsible Officer requires the individual to be an attached subsidiary intermediary with sufficient corporate authority and a clean regulatory record regarding RO revocations for the past 12 months. The MPFA maintains continuous oversight through its power to modify regulatory conditions at any stage of the approval’s lifecycle. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
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Question 15 of 28
15. Question
A registered intermediary is advising a client who wishes to consolidate their MPF accounts and is evaluating the costs of various constituent funds. Which of the following statements regarding the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA) and the Fund Expense Ratio (FER) are correct according to the MPFSO and regulatory guidelines?
I. Under the ECA, a member may transfer accrued benefits arising from their own mandatory contributions in a contribution account to a scheme of their choice once per calendar year.
II. Accrued benefits derived from employer mandatory contributions in a contribution account are generally not transferable by the employee under the ECA while still in that employment.
III. The Fund Expense Ratio (FER) is a retrospective indicator of a fund’s expenses and is typically found in the Fund Fact Sheet of a scheme.
IV. Every constituent fund is mandated to display a Fund Expense Ratio (FER) in its Fund Fact Sheet from its inception date to ensure full transparency for new members.Correct
Correct: Statements I and II accurately reflect the provisions of the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), which allows employees to transfer accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions from their current employment’s contribution account to a scheme of their choice once per calendar year. Statement III is correct because the Fund Expense Ratio (FER) is a retrospective calculation based on the expenses and fund size of the previous financial period, as disclosed in the Fund Fact Sheet.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) does not require constituent funds to show an FER if they have less than two years of financial history. Therefore, it is not a mandatory disclosure for all funds from their inception date.
**Takeaway:** When advising on scheme portability and costs, intermediaries must note that the ECA only applies to the employee’s portion of mandatory contributions and that the FER is a historical figure not required for funds with less than two years of operation. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I and II accurately reflect the provisions of the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), which allows employees to transfer accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions from their current employment’s contribution account to a scheme of their choice once per calendar year. Statement III is correct because the Fund Expense Ratio (FER) is a retrospective calculation based on the expenses and fund size of the previous financial period, as disclosed in the Fund Fact Sheet.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) does not require constituent funds to show an FER if they have less than two years of financial history. Therefore, it is not a mandatory disclosure for all funds from their inception date.
**Takeaway:** When advising on scheme portability and costs, intermediaries must note that the ECA only applies to the employee’s portion of mandatory contributions and that the FER is a historical figure not required for funds with less than two years of operation. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
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Question 16 of 28
16. Question
Mr. Wong has been working for a logistics firm in Hong Kong for four years. He wishes to consolidate his MPF benefits and is reviewing his options under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA). Which of the following statements accurately describes Mr. Wong’s rights regarding the transfer of his accrued benefits while he is still employed by the firm?
Correct
Correct: Under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), a relevant employee has the right to transfer the accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions made during their current employment to an MPF personal account of their choice. This transfer can be executed in a lump sum once per calendar year, unless the governing rules of the original scheme allow for more frequent transfers. This mechanism allows employees to exercise more control over their investment strategy while remaining with their current employer.
**Incorrect:** The employer’s portion of mandatory contributions attributable to the current employment is not transferable under the ECA and must remain in the scheme selected by the employer. Additionally, while mandatory contributions from former employment can be transferred to either a personal account or a contribution account at any time, the employee’s mandatory contributions from current employment are strictly limited to being transferred into a personal account only.
**Takeaway:** The ECA provides employees with the flexibility to move their own mandatory contributions from current employment to a personal account once a year, but it does not extend this portability to the employer’s current contributions, which remain locked in the employer’s chosen scheme until the employment ends.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), a relevant employee has the right to transfer the accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions made during their current employment to an MPF personal account of their choice. This transfer can be executed in a lump sum once per calendar year, unless the governing rules of the original scheme allow for more frequent transfers. This mechanism allows employees to exercise more control over their investment strategy while remaining with their current employer.
**Incorrect:** The employer’s portion of mandatory contributions attributable to the current employment is not transferable under the ECA and must remain in the scheme selected by the employer. Additionally, while mandatory contributions from former employment can be transferred to either a personal account or a contribution account at any time, the employee’s mandatory contributions from current employment are strictly limited to being transferred into a personal account only.
**Takeaway:** The ECA provides employees with the flexibility to move their own mandatory contributions from current employment to a personal account once a year, but it does not extend this portability to the employer’s current contributions, which remain locked in the employer’s chosen scheme until the employment ends.
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Question 17 of 28
17. Question
A senior marketing executive at a Hong Kong-based firm is considering consolidating their retirement savings. Under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), which specific component of the accrued benefits within their current employment’s contribution account is the executive permitted to transfer to a personal MPF scheme once per calendar year?
Correct
Correct: Under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), a relevant employee is entitled to transfer the accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions made during their current employment to an MPF scheme of their choice. This transfer can be performed once every calendar year, allowing members to consolidate their personal contributions or seek better investment performance while remaining with the same employer.
**Incorrect:** It is incorrect to suggest that employer mandatory contributions can be transferred under the ECA while the employment is ongoing; these must remain in the scheme selected by the employer to ensure administrative stability. Similarly, while voluntary contributions may be transferable depending on specific scheme rules, they are not the statutory focus of the ECA’s mandatory transfer right. Reversing the rule to suggest only employer contributions are transferable is a fundamental misunderstanding of the portability regulations.
**Takeaway:** The Employee Choice Arrangement provides ‘portability’ for the employee’s portion of mandatory contributions from current employment, but does not extend this right to the employer’s portion until the employment relationship is terminated.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Employee Choice Arrangement (ECA), a relevant employee is entitled to transfer the accrued benefits derived from their own mandatory contributions made during their current employment to an MPF scheme of their choice. This transfer can be performed once every calendar year, allowing members to consolidate their personal contributions or seek better investment performance while remaining with the same employer.
**Incorrect:** It is incorrect to suggest that employer mandatory contributions can be transferred under the ECA while the employment is ongoing; these must remain in the scheme selected by the employer to ensure administrative stability. Similarly, while voluntary contributions may be transferable depending on specific scheme rules, they are not the statutory focus of the ECA’s mandatory transfer right. Reversing the rule to suggest only employer contributions are transferable is a fundamental misunderstanding of the portability regulations.
**Takeaway:** The Employee Choice Arrangement provides ‘portability’ for the employee’s portion of mandatory contributions from current employment, but does not extend this right to the employer’s portion until the employment relationship is terminated.
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Question 18 of 28
18. Question
An employee participating in a Master Trust Scheme is examining the Fund Fact Sheet of a specific investment option. The document specifies that a minimum return of 2% per annum is provided, provided the member maintains their investment in that fund until the age of 65. Based on MPF regulations, how is this guarantee categorized and what is the required frequency for issuing this report card?
Correct
Correct: A soft guarantee is a type of guarantee where the minimum return or capital preservation is promised only if the scheme member meets specific qualifying conditions, such as a minimum investment period or reaching a certain age. Additionally, under MPF regulations, the Fund Fact Sheet (FFS), which serves as the fund’s report card, must be issued to members on a half-yearly basis to provide updates on performance, fees, and portfolio composition.
**Incorrect:** A hard guarantee would imply that the minimum return is provided regardless of any conditions, which does not fit a scenario where a member must stay until age 65. Furthermore, while other reports like the Annual Benefit Statement are issued yearly, the Fund Fact Sheet is specifically required to be produced twice a year, making quarterly or annual frequencies inaccurate for this specific document.
**Takeaway:** Scheme members should identify a guarantee as ‘soft’ when it is contingent upon qualifying conditions and rely on the half-yearly Fund Fact Sheet for the most current summary of a fund’s risk and performance.
Incorrect
Correct: A soft guarantee is a type of guarantee where the minimum return or capital preservation is promised only if the scheme member meets specific qualifying conditions, such as a minimum investment period or reaching a certain age. Additionally, under MPF regulations, the Fund Fact Sheet (FFS), which serves as the fund’s report card, must be issued to members on a half-yearly basis to provide updates on performance, fees, and portfolio composition.
**Incorrect:** A hard guarantee would imply that the minimum return is provided regardless of any conditions, which does not fit a scenario where a member must stay until age 65. Furthermore, while other reports like the Annual Benefit Statement are issued yearly, the Fund Fact Sheet is specifically required to be produced twice a year, making quarterly or annual frequencies inaccurate for this specific document.
**Takeaway:** Scheme members should identify a guarantee as ‘soft’ when it is contingent upon qualifying conditions and rely on the half-yearly Fund Fact Sheet for the most current summary of a fund’s risk and performance.
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Question 19 of 28
19. Question
A financial consultant is preparing a presentation for a corporate client regarding the structural design of the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system. Which of the following features should the consultant highlight as key characteristics of the system under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance?
I. It is an employment-based system covering the majority of the workforce and self-employed persons.
II. It is a fully-funded system where benefits are paid from the assets accumulated in a member’s account.
III. It is a privately-managed system utilizing the expertise of the private sector for scheme administration and investment.
IV. It is a defined benefit system where the government guarantees a specific payout amount upon retirement.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and III correctly identify the core pillars of the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system. It is employment-based as it involves employers, employees, and self-employed persons. It is fully-funded because benefits are derived from the actual accumulation of contributions and investment returns in individual accounts. Furthermore, it is privately managed by approved trustees and investment managers rather than being a government-run pension fund.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF system is a Defined Contribution (DC) scheme, not a Defined Benefit (DB) scheme. In a DB scheme, the retirement benefit is usually calculated based on a formula involving years of service and salary, with the employer bearing the investment risk. In the MPF DC system, the benefit depends on the total contributions made and the net investment performance, with the member bearing the investment risk.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system is characterized by being employment-based, fully-funded, and privately-managed, operating under a defined contribution model where the final benefit is not pre-determined. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and III correctly identify the core pillars of the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system. It is employment-based as it involves employers, employees, and self-employed persons. It is fully-funded because benefits are derived from the actual accumulation of contributions and investment returns in individual accounts. Furthermore, it is privately managed by approved trustees and investment managers rather than being a government-run pension fund.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF system is a Defined Contribution (DC) scheme, not a Defined Benefit (DB) scheme. In a DB scheme, the retirement benefit is usually calculated based on a formula involving years of service and salary, with the employer bearing the investment risk. In the MPF DC system, the benefit depends on the total contributions made and the net investment performance, with the member bearing the investment risk.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system is characterized by being employment-based, fully-funded, and privately-managed, operating under a defined contribution model where the final benefit is not pre-determined. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
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Question 20 of 28
20. Question
A registered intermediary is explaining the historical and demographic rationale behind the establishment of the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system to a new corporate client. Which of the following statements regarding the need for retirement protection and the demographic challenges in Hong Kong are correct?
I. Projections indicate that the segment of the population aged 65 and above will rise to over one-third of the total population by 2064.
II. Traditional family support is currently viewed by the government as a guaranteed and sufficient primary source of retirement income for all elderly individuals.
III. The implementation of the MPF system helps mitigate the risk of old age poverty for those who lack the awareness or capacity to save voluntarily.
IV. The demographic shift toward an ageing population increases the burden on the active working population to support retirees over a longer duration.Correct
Correct: Statements I, III, and IV are accurate reflections of the socio-economic drivers for the MPF system. Statement I aligns with demographic projections from the Census and Statistics Department, which estimate that the population aged 65 and over will reach 36% (more than one-third) by 2064. Statement III correctly identifies that the MPF system serves as a safeguard for individuals who may lack the financial awareness or the inherent ability to accumulate sufficient savings independently. Statement IV accurately describes the challenge of an ageing population, where the shrinking workforce must support a growing number of retirees for longer periods.
**Incorrect:** Statement II is incorrect because modern retirement planning recognizes that traditional family support has significant shortcomings. It is not a guaranteed source of income, as some elderly individuals may not have children to support them, and many families lack the necessary financial resources to provide adequate care, potentially leading to old age poverty.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system was implemented as a mandatory pillar of retirement protection to address the systemic risks posed by a rapidly ageing population and the declining reliability of informal family-based support structures. Therefore, statements I, III and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, III, and IV are accurate reflections of the socio-economic drivers for the MPF system. Statement I aligns with demographic projections from the Census and Statistics Department, which estimate that the population aged 65 and over will reach 36% (more than one-third) by 2064. Statement III correctly identifies that the MPF system serves as a safeguard for individuals who may lack the financial awareness or the inherent ability to accumulate sufficient savings independently. Statement IV accurately describes the challenge of an ageing population, where the shrinking workforce must support a growing number of retirees for longer periods.
**Incorrect:** Statement II is incorrect because modern retirement planning recognizes that traditional family support has significant shortcomings. It is not a guaranteed source of income, as some elderly individuals may not have children to support them, and many families lack the necessary financial resources to provide adequate care, potentially leading to old age poverty.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system was implemented as a mandatory pillar of retirement protection to address the systemic risks posed by a rapidly ageing population and the declining reliability of informal family-based support structures. Therefore, statements I, III and IV are correct.
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Question 21 of 28
21. Question
An operations manager at a brokerage firm in Central is calculating the deadline for the monthly MPF contribution. If the 10th day of the month—the typical contribution day—coincides with a Saturday that is immediately followed by a public holiday Monday, what is the legal requirement for the timing of the contribution payment and the submission of the remittance statement?
Correct
Correct: According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and the Interpretation and General Clauses Ordinance, if a contribution day falls on a Saturday, a public holiday, or a day with a gale or black rainstorm warning, the deadline is legally extended. The new deadline becomes the next following day that is not a Saturday, a public holiday, or a day affected by such weather warnings. This ensures that employers have a fair opportunity to process payments and statements when banks and offices are fully operational.
**Incorrect:** The claim that the contribution must be settled on the preceding Friday is incorrect because the law provides a statutory extension rather than requiring early payment. The assertion that the deadline remains the 10th because extensions only apply to the 60-day permitted period is a reversal of the actual rules; in fact, the 60-day enrollment period does not extend for holidays, while the contribution day does. Finally, the idea that the deadline would be the following Monday regardless of its status as a public holiday is incorrect, as public holidays are specifically excluded from being valid contribution days.
**Takeaway:** While the 60-day permitted period for enrolling new employees is a fixed duration that does not extend for weekends or holidays, the monthly contribution day is flexible and shifts to the next available working day if it falls on a Saturday, public holiday, or during specific severe weather warnings.
Incorrect
Correct: According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and the Interpretation and General Clauses Ordinance, if a contribution day falls on a Saturday, a public holiday, or a day with a gale or black rainstorm warning, the deadline is legally extended. The new deadline becomes the next following day that is not a Saturday, a public holiday, or a day affected by such weather warnings. This ensures that employers have a fair opportunity to process payments and statements when banks and offices are fully operational.
**Incorrect:** The claim that the contribution must be settled on the preceding Friday is incorrect because the law provides a statutory extension rather than requiring early payment. The assertion that the deadline remains the 10th because extensions only apply to the 60-day permitted period is a reversal of the actual rules; in fact, the 60-day enrollment period does not extend for holidays, while the contribution day does. Finally, the idea that the deadline would be the following Monday regardless of its status as a public holiday is incorrect, as public holidays are specifically excluded from being valid contribution days.
**Takeaway:** While the 60-day permitted period for enrolling new employees is a fixed duration that does not extend for weekends or holidays, the monthly contribution day is flexible and shifts to the next available working day if it falls on a Saturday, public holiday, or during specific severe weather warnings.
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Question 22 of 28
22. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong-based principal intermediary is reviewing the firm’s internal manuals to ensure they align with the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct Requirements. Which of the following statements regarding internal controls, record keeping, and complaint handling are correct?
I. Any identified failure to comply with the MPFSO or relevant Guidelines must be reported to the frontline regulator and industry regulator within 14 working days of identification.
II. All records concerning the conduct of regulated activities, including audio recordings of sales processes, must be kept for a minimum period of seven years.
III. Complaints of a serious nature, such as the unauthorized transfer of a client’s accrued benefits, must be reported to the regulators immediately.
IV. Principal intermediaries must implement arrangements to ensure that subsidiary intermediaries do not accept cash payments or uncrossed cheques from clients.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, III, and IV are all accurate according to the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct Requirements. Specifically, any identified compliance failures must be reported to the relevant regulators within 14 working days (Statement I). The retention period for records related to regulated activities, including audio and written records, is a minimum of seven years (Statement II). For complaints of a serious or criminal nature, such as unauthorized transfers or forgery, the intermediary must notify the regulators immediately (Statement III). Furthermore, to mitigate fraud risks, principal intermediaries must have controls to prevent subsidiary intermediaries from accepting cash or uncrossed cheques (Statement IV).
**Incorrect:** All statements provided are correct. Common misconceptions in this area often involve the reporting timeframe (mistakenly believing it is 30 days instead of 14 working days) or the record-keeping duration (mistakenly believing it is 2 or 5 years instead of 7 years). Additionally, while general complaints are summarized quarterly for the MPFA, serious/criminal complaints require immediate notification, not just periodic reporting.
**Takeaway:** Registered MPF intermediaries must adhere to strict internal control standards that prioritize client asset protection, long-term record retention (7 years), and proactive reporting of both compliance failures and serious client complaints to regulators. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, III, and IV are all accurate according to the MPFA Guidelines on Conduct Requirements. Specifically, any identified compliance failures must be reported to the relevant regulators within 14 working days (Statement I). The retention period for records related to regulated activities, including audio and written records, is a minimum of seven years (Statement II). For complaints of a serious or criminal nature, such as unauthorized transfers or forgery, the intermediary must notify the regulators immediately (Statement III). Furthermore, to mitigate fraud risks, principal intermediaries must have controls to prevent subsidiary intermediaries from accepting cash or uncrossed cheques (Statement IV).
**Incorrect:** All statements provided are correct. Common misconceptions in this area often involve the reporting timeframe (mistakenly believing it is 30 days instead of 14 working days) or the record-keeping duration (mistakenly believing it is 2 or 5 years instead of 7 years). Additionally, while general complaints are summarized quarterly for the MPFA, serious/criminal complaints require immediate notification, not just periodic reporting.
**Takeaway:** Registered MPF intermediaries must adhere to strict internal control standards that prioritize client asset protection, long-term record retention (7 years), and proactive reporting of both compliance failures and serious client complaints to regulators. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.
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Question 23 of 28
23. Question
A financial consultant is meeting with a client to discuss their retirement portfolio. Which of the following actions performed by the consultant would be classified as inducing a ‘material decision’ under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance?
Correct
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, a ‘material decision’ specifically includes a decision regarding the amount of accrued benefits to be transferred from one constituent fund of an MPF scheme to another constituent fund within that same scheme. Because this action involves a specific choice about the allocation and movement of assets within the MPF system, inducing a person to make such a decision for reward is classified as a regulated activity that requires the individual to be a registered intermediary.
**Incorrect:** Providing a factual list of all available MPF trustees, explaining the general legal requirements for who must join the MPF system, or assisting with purely administrative tasks like updating a home address do not qualify as inducing a material decision. These actions are considered either the provision of public information, legal education, or clerical support, none of which involve influencing a client’s specific choice to join, contribute to, or transfer funds within a particular MPF product.
**Takeaway:** A material decision involves specific choices regarding joining schemes, making contributions, or transferring benefits; individuals who induce others to make these decisions in a professional capacity must be registered as MPF intermediaries.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance, a ‘material decision’ specifically includes a decision regarding the amount of accrued benefits to be transferred from one constituent fund of an MPF scheme to another constituent fund within that same scheme. Because this action involves a specific choice about the allocation and movement of assets within the MPF system, inducing a person to make such a decision for reward is classified as a regulated activity that requires the individual to be a registered intermediary.
**Incorrect:** Providing a factual list of all available MPF trustees, explaining the general legal requirements for who must join the MPF system, or assisting with purely administrative tasks like updating a home address do not qualify as inducing a material decision. These actions are considered either the provision of public information, legal education, or clerical support, none of which involve influencing a client’s specific choice to join, contribute to, or transfer funds within a particular MPF product.
**Takeaway:** A material decision involves specific choices regarding joining schemes, making contributions, or transferring benefits; individuals who induce others to make these decisions in a professional capacity must be registered as MPF intermediaries.
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Question 24 of 28
24. Question
A registered MPF intermediary is currently under investigation for potential breaches of the Conduct Guidelines. Regarding the disciplinary procedures and the subsequent appeal mechanism as stipulated under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO), which of the following statements are correct?
I. The MPFA must issue a written notice to the regulated person stating the reasons for its preliminary view and the particulars of the proposed disciplinary order.
II. The regulated person must be given an opportunity to make either oral or written representations regarding the MPFA’s preliminary view.
III. An appeal against the MPFA’s decision on disciplinary sanctions must be submitted to the Appeal Board within two months after the date of the notice.
IV. The MPFA is required to maintain a record of disciplinary orders in the Register of Intermediaries for a period of seven years from the date the order was made.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and III accurately reflect the procedural requirements and appeal mechanisms under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). The MPFA is legally obligated to provide a preliminary notice in writing that includes the reasons for its view and the proposed sanctions, while also granting the intermediary the right to make representations in either oral or written form. Additionally, the statutory period for filing an appeal with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Appeal Board is two months from the date of the decision notice.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPFA is required to include a record of disciplinary orders in the Register of Intermediaries for a period of five years, not seven years. Furthermore, regarding public disclosure, the MPFA is empowered to disclose details of disciplinary decisions except for private reprimands.
**Takeaway:** The disciplinary framework for MPF intermediaries ensures procedural fairness by requiring the MPFA to provide a preliminary notice and an opportunity for representation before a final decision is made, with an independent appeal channel available for a two-month period. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and III accurately reflect the procedural requirements and appeal mechanisms under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). The MPFA is legally obligated to provide a preliminary notice in writing that includes the reasons for its view and the proposed sanctions, while also granting the intermediary the right to make representations in either oral or written form. Additionally, the statutory period for filing an appeal with the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Appeal Board is two months from the date of the decision notice.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPFA is required to include a record of disciplinary orders in the Register of Intermediaries for a period of five years, not seven years. Furthermore, regarding public disclosure, the MPFA is empowered to disclose details of disciplinary decisions except for private reprimands.
**Takeaway:** The disciplinary framework for MPF intermediaries ensures procedural fairness by requiring the MPFA to provide a preliminary notice and an opportunity for representation before a final decision is made, with an independent appeal channel available for a two-month period. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
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Question 25 of 28
25. Question
A human resources consultant is conducting an orientation for a multinational corporation establishing its first office in Hong Kong. When describing the fundamental design of the Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system to the executive team, which of the following features should the consultant highlight as key characteristics?
I. The system is employment-based, involving both employers and employees in the contribution process.
II. It is a fully-funded system where assets are accumulated to meet future retirement obligations.
III. The schemes are privately managed by approved trustees to leverage market competition and efficiency.
IV. It functions as a defined benefit system where the government guarantees a fixed monthly pension upon retirement.Correct
Correct: The Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system in Hong Kong is characterized by being employment-based, meaning it is linked to the employment relationship between employers and employees. It is also a fully-funded system where contributions are specifically set aside and accumulated in individual accounts to fund future retirement benefits. Furthermore, it is privately-managed, as the schemes are operated by approved private-sector trustees rather than the government.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF system is a defined contribution (DC) scheme, not a defined benefit (DB) scheme. In a defined contribution system, the retirement benefit is determined by the total amount of contributions made plus any investment returns or losses, whereas a defined benefit system guarantees a specific payout based on factors like salary history and years of service.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system’s design relies on an employment-based, fully-funded, and privately-managed framework to ensure the long-term sustainability of retirement protection for the Hong Kong workforce. I, II & III only. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: The Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) system in Hong Kong is characterized by being employment-based, meaning it is linked to the employment relationship between employers and employees. It is also a fully-funded system where contributions are specifically set aside and accumulated in individual accounts to fund future retirement benefits. Furthermore, it is privately-managed, as the schemes are operated by approved private-sector trustees rather than the government.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF system is a defined contribution (DC) scheme, not a defined benefit (DB) scheme. In a defined contribution system, the retirement benefit is determined by the total amount of contributions made plus any investment returns or losses, whereas a defined benefit system guarantees a specific payout based on factors like salary history and years of service.
**Takeaway:** The MPF system’s design relies on an employment-based, fully-funded, and privately-managed framework to ensure the long-term sustainability of retirement protection for the Hong Kong workforce. I, II & III only. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
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Question 26 of 28
26. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong-based principal intermediary is reviewing the firm’s internal policies to ensure they align with the conduct requirements set out in the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). Which of the following statements regarding the statutory requirements for registered intermediaries are correct?
I. Principal intermediaries must maintain records of regulated activities to enable frontline regulators to ascertain compliance by both the principal and its subsidiary intermediaries.
II. Registered intermediaries are required to exercise the level of care, skill, and diligence reasonably expected of a prudent person carrying on the regulated activity.
III. Subsidiary intermediaries are authorized to provide advice on any MPF matter as long as they are attached to a principal intermediary, irrespective of their individual competence.
IV. Principal intermediaries are responsible for establishing and maintaining proper controls and procedures to secure compliance by their attached subsidiary intermediaries.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV accurately reflect the statutory conduct requirements under Section 34ZL of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). Principal intermediaries (PIs) are legally required to maintain comprehensive records of regulated activities conducted by both themselves and their attached subsidiary intermediaries (SIs) to facilitate regulatory oversight. Furthermore, all intermediaries must adhere to a “prudent person” standard, exercising a level of care, skill, and diligence expected in the industry. PIs are also specifically responsible for implementing internal controls and procedures to ensure that their SIs comply with all relevant regulatory requirements.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because Section 34ZL(1)(c) of the MPFSO explicitly restricts intermediaries to advising only on matters for which they are competent. Registration and attachment to a principal intermediary do not waive the requirement for individual competence in specific subject areas. Intermediaries must ensure they possess the necessary knowledge and expertise before providing advice on any specific MPF-related matter.
**Takeaway:** The regulatory framework for MPF intermediaries emphasizes the dual responsibility of individual conduct (prudence and competence) and institutional oversight (record-keeping and internal controls by the principal intermediary) to protect client interests. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and IV accurately reflect the statutory conduct requirements under Section 34ZL of the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance (MPFSO). Principal intermediaries (PIs) are legally required to maintain comprehensive records of regulated activities conducted by both themselves and their attached subsidiary intermediaries (SIs) to facilitate regulatory oversight. Furthermore, all intermediaries must adhere to a “prudent person” standard, exercising a level of care, skill, and diligence expected in the industry. PIs are also specifically responsible for implementing internal controls and procedures to ensure that their SIs comply with all relevant regulatory requirements.
**Incorrect:** Statement III is incorrect because Section 34ZL(1)(c) of the MPFSO explicitly restricts intermediaries to advising only on matters for which they are competent. Registration and attachment to a principal intermediary do not waive the requirement for individual competence in specific subject areas. Intermediaries must ensure they possess the necessary knowledge and expertise before providing advice on any specific MPF-related matter.
**Takeaway:** The regulatory framework for MPF intermediaries emphasizes the dual responsibility of individual conduct (prudence and competence) and institutional oversight (record-keeping and internal controls by the principal intermediary) to protect client interests. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
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Question 27 of 28
27. Question
A human resources officer at a Hong Kong-based investment firm is reviewing the final compensation package for a departing employee to determine the mandatory provident fund (MPF) contribution. According to the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance and related regulations, which of the following components are classified as ‘relevant income’?
I. An award determined by a labor tribunal representing unpaid commission
II. A statutory payment in lieu of notice
III. Fuel and maintenance expenses paid by the firm for a company car provided to the employee
IV. Service charges collected from clients by the firm and subsequently distributed to the employeeCorrect
Correct: Statement I is correct because any award determined by a court or tribunal that represents wages, commissions, bonuses, or perquisites is included in the definition of relevant income. Statement IV is correct because tips or service charges that are collected by the employer (including those added to credit card bills) and subsequently distributed to employees are considered relevant income for MPF contribution purposes.
**Incorrect:** Statement II is incorrect because payment in lieu of notice is specifically excluded from the definition of relevant income, as it does not fall under the nine specified heads of income (wages, salary, leave pay, fee, commission, bonus, gratuity, perquisite, or allowance). Statement III is incorrect because non-monetary benefits, such as the employer providing a car or covering fuel and maintenance expenses, are not classified as relevant income.
**Takeaway:** For MPF purposes, relevant income generally encompasses all monetary payments derived from employment, including commissions and employer-handled tips, but excludes non-monetary benefits and specific statutory termination payments like payment in lieu of notice, severance pay, and long service pay. Therefore, statements I and IV are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statement I is correct because any award determined by a court or tribunal that represents wages, commissions, bonuses, or perquisites is included in the definition of relevant income. Statement IV is correct because tips or service charges that are collected by the employer (including those added to credit card bills) and subsequently distributed to employees are considered relevant income for MPF contribution purposes.
**Incorrect:** Statement II is incorrect because payment in lieu of notice is specifically excluded from the definition of relevant income, as it does not fall under the nine specified heads of income (wages, salary, leave pay, fee, commission, bonus, gratuity, perquisite, or allowance). Statement III is incorrect because non-monetary benefits, such as the employer providing a car or covering fuel and maintenance expenses, are not classified as relevant income.
**Takeaway:** For MPF purposes, relevant income generally encompasses all monetary payments derived from employment, including commissions and employer-handled tips, but excludes non-monetary benefits and specific statutory termination payments like payment in lieu of notice, severance pay, and long service pay. Therefore, statements I and IV are correct.
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Question 28 of 28
28. Question
A retirement planning specialist is explaining the multi-pillar framework adopted by the World Bank to a group of HR professionals. In the context of Hong Kong’s retirement protection system, which of the following statements accurately describe the pillars and the MPF System’s characteristics?
I. The MPF System is categorized as Pillar Two, representing a mandatory, privately-managed, and fully-funded contribution system.
II. Under the MPF System, the amount of accrued benefits is determined by the contributions made and the investment returns, making it a defined contribution system.
III. Pillar Four consists of informal support such as family assistance, as well as individual assets like home ownership and other social programmes.
IV. The MPF System is intended to be the primary and sufficient source of retirement income for all residents, replacing the need for other pillars.Correct
Correct: Statements I, II, and III are accurate reflections of the World Bank’s five-pillar framework and the MPF System’s role within it. The MPF System is specifically identified as Pillar Two, which is characterized by being mandatory, privately managed, and fully funded. Because it is a defined contribution system, the ultimate benefits available to a member are directly linked to the total contributions paid into their account plus any investment gains or losses. Furthermore, Pillar Four correctly identifies non-financial or informal supports, such as family help and personal assets like housing, which complement the formal pension pillars.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF System is not designed to be the sole or sufficient source of retirement income for Hong Kong’s population. The World Bank framework emphasizes that no single pillar can effectively solve the issue of retirement protection in isolation. Instead, the MPF System is intended to work in conjunction with other pillars, such as government social security (Pillar 0/1) and personal voluntary savings (Pillar 3), to provide comprehensive financial security for the elderly.
**Takeaway:** The MPF System is a mandatory, employment-based, privately-managed second pillar that functions as a defined contribution scheme, requiring integration with other pillars of the World Bank framework to ensure adequate retirement protection. I, II & III only. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.
Incorrect
Correct: Statements I, II, and III are accurate reflections of the World Bank’s five-pillar framework and the MPF System’s role within it. The MPF System is specifically identified as Pillar Two, which is characterized by being mandatory, privately managed, and fully funded. Because it is a defined contribution system, the ultimate benefits available to a member are directly linked to the total contributions paid into their account plus any investment gains or losses. Furthermore, Pillar Four correctly identifies non-financial or informal supports, such as family help and personal assets like housing, which complement the formal pension pillars.
**Incorrect:** Statement IV is incorrect because the MPF System is not designed to be the sole or sufficient source of retirement income for Hong Kong’s population. The World Bank framework emphasizes that no single pillar can effectively solve the issue of retirement protection in isolation. Instead, the MPF System is intended to work in conjunction with other pillars, such as government social security (Pillar 0/1) and personal voluntary savings (Pillar 3), to provide comprehensive financial security for the elderly.
**Takeaway:** The MPF System is a mandatory, employment-based, privately-managed second pillar that functions as a defined contribution scheme, requiring integration with other pillars of the World Bank framework to ensure adequate retirement protection. I, II & III only. Therefore, statements I, II and III are correct.